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Practice Test 3

Q1. Progress on a release burndown chart is indicated by__________.

1. the amount of completed work and the velocity of the team
2. the amount of remaining work and the velocity of the team
3. the amount of remaining work and the number of iterations to be done
4. the amount of completed work and the number of iterations to be done

Answer: D. the amount of completed work and the number of iterations to be done

In the end, the release burndown chart reaches zero.

Q2. Which of the following is NOT a recommended practice in Agile estimation and planning?

1. Plan at different levels
2. Acknowledge the importance of learning
3. Leave some slack
4. Plan the iteration during the iteration-planning meeting

Answer: C. Leave some slack

Slacks and buffers are not recommended approaches in Agile estimation.

Q3. A team has 5 members working with an average billable rate of $500 per day each. It is estimated that the project will need 5 iterations, each of which will have 10 days. What is the projected cost of the project?

1. $7,500
2. $75,000
3. $1,875,000
4. $125,000

Answer: D. $125,000

Daily rate of the team is 5 * 500 = 2,500 daily rate

Total days to complete iterations are 5 * 10 = 50 days

Total cost of the project is 2,500 * 50 = 125,000

Q4. A new Agile team estimates that it can complete forty-five ideal days of work in the first iteration. The Product Owner insists that the team should raise the goal to sixty ideal days. The Project Manager should __________.

1. vocally support the team’s estimate by politely explaining the risks and the team’s maturity to the Product Owner
2. accept the Product Owner’s request as a way to challenge the team
3. ask the Product Owner to leave the room, so the team can devise a plan for a compromise
4. remain quiet, allowing the team to decide how much work it can take on, but ready to support the team

Answer D. remain quiet, allowing the team to decide how much work it can take on, but ready to support the team

The project manager’s role is to support the team while letting them make a decision about what they can or cannot do.

Q5. Common characteristics of iteration reviews are:

1. Four-hour time limit
2. Updates to Product Owner
3. Plans for next Iteration
4. All of the above

Answer: D. All of the above

The iteration review session is held at the end of each iteration, as agreed upon before the iteration cycle begins.

Q6. ________ estimating is the process of grouping requirements into categories or collections.

1. Root Cause
2. Fish bone
3. Affinity
4. Fibonacci

Answer: C. Affinity

Affinity estimating is the process of grouping requirements into categories or collections. It is more suitable for product backlog or large features because it provides a high-level estimate of the items.

Q7. _________ is a top-level vision that may span one or more product backlogs.

1. User story
2. Epic
3. Theme
4. Vision

Answer: C. Theme

Themes can be used at the project level to drive strategic alignment.

Q8. The product backlog for a project reflects that 1,125 story points remain for the first release. The average velocity of 5 teams working on this release is 125 story points per iteration of two weeks each. How many more iterations will the project need to complete the backlog for the release?

1. Nine iterations of two weeks each
2. Eighteen iterations of two weeks each
3. Six twenty-five days
4. Not able to calculate with provided data

Answer: A. Nine iterations of two weeks each

Remaining story points: 1,125

Velocity: 125 per iteration

1,125 / 125 = 9 more iteration

Q9. A team estimated twelve ideal days for a user story. What will be the elapsed time for the story?

1. Equal to twelve days
2. Greater than twelve days
3. Less than twelve days
4. None of the above

Answer: B. Greater than twelve days

Ideal days are the amount of time it will take it to finish a user story uninterrupted (without including non-development time, i.e., lunch break). Elapsed time is the actual amount of the time it will take to complete the story.

Q10. Stakeholders should NOT be invited to which of the following meetings?

1. Daily stand-ups
2. Planning meetings
3. Review meetings
4. Technical meetings

Answer: D. Technical meetings

Technical teams run by the technical team members and no other users, product owners, or stakeholders are invited.

Q11. Scrum is best suited for what kind of scenario?

1. Requirements are known and fixed
2. Requirements are unknown, unknowable, and fixed
3. Requirements are unknown, complex and chaotic
4. Requirements are known, knowable, or fixed

Answer: C. Requirements are unknown, complex and chaotic

Scrum was originally formalized for software development projects but worked well for any complex, innovative scope of work. The Scrum framework is deceptively simple and easy to use. Option “a” is not the best answer, “c” best suits the Scrum.

Q12. Which of the following consensus-based techniques allow developers to estimate the length and complexity of iterations?

1. Extreme programming
2. Planning poker
3. Wideband Delphi
4. DSDM

Answer: B. Planning poker

Planning Poker is one of the consensus-based techniques mostly used to estimate the effort or the relative size of tasks in development projects. The members of the project team come together and estimate each item in a few rounds using the planning poker cards until the team reaches consensus on the size of each item or task.

Q13. Due to an impediment, an Agile team cannot meet its iteration goal. To remove the impediment, the team should share the impediment__________.

1. with the senior management quickly to resolve the issue
2. at the next iteration planning meeting and assign ownership
3. at the daily stand-up with team members
4. at the retrospective meeting

Answer: C. at the daily stand-up with team members

Daily Stand-ups’ where all participants provide a status update to other team members about what they are working on.

Q14. Which of the following is NOT a feedback technique?

1. Prototype
2. Demonstration
3. Flip chart
4. Simulation

Answer: C. Flip chart

Common feedback techniques are Release, Evaluation, Prototyping, Demonstration, Simulation, Mockup and Wireframe

Q15. Which of the following is NOT a good choice for information radiators?

1. Online files
2. Sticky notes
3. Flip chart
4. Whiteboard

Answer: A. Online files

An information radiator is a board kept in a place where everyone can easily see and read the content. It shows the project status – which iterations, current tasks, key deliverables, test results, and more.

Q16. Read the scenario given below and answer the question: Project Genesis has a co-located team. One of the test engineers of the team needed clarification from a developer of the same team. According to the Agile manifesto, which of the following forms of communication is most appropriate?

1. Phone
2. Instant Message
3. Wiki
4. Face-to-face

Answer: D. Face-to-face

Emphasis on the relationship between the team members rather than institutionalized processes and tools. The team should be empowered to make decisions about activities they are responsible for, who will be doing what and when

Q17. A product tester complains to the Agile Project Manager that she has taken too many tasks. The Project Manager should:

1. Call an emergency team meeting to resolve the issue
2. Encourage the tester to find another job
3. Redistribute the team’s assignments at the next daily standup meeting
4. Mentor her to take action to resolve the issue

Answer: D. Mentor her to take action to resolve the issue.

The Agile Project Manager is expected to be a valuable coach and a

mentor to the team.

Q18. __________ is a visual process management system that tells what to produce when to produce it, and how much to produce.

1. Lean
2. DSDM
3. Kanban
4. AUP

Answer: C. Kanban

The work and the workflow are made visible to make activities and issues, like backups obvious. It helps to organize the chaos; provides a clear focus within the delivery team. 

Q19. __________ is the practice of supporting a person or team to achieve specific goals of those individuals or teams.

1. Mentoring
2. Coaching
3. Leading
4. Directing

Answer: B. Coaching

A coach helps a team to achieve their goal and make the project a success.

Q20. What should be the duration of a daily stand-up meeting?

1. One hour
2. Not more than thirty minutes
3. Not more than fifteen minutes
4. Two hours

Answer: C. Not more than fifteen minutes

It is a daily meeting held every morning with the core team members to discuss upcoming activities where everyone stand-ups to show that It is a quick gathering.

Q 21. __________ is an iterative and incremental software development process driven from a client-valued functionality (feature) perspective.

1. TDD
2. FDD
3. DSDM
4. AUP

Answer: B. FDD

Feature-Driven Development (FDD) is an Agile approach to developing software iterative and incremental.

Q 22. Spike is a task included in an iteration plan that is being undertaken for_________.

1. fixing all bugs in the previous iteration
2. gaining knowledge or answering a question
3. completing the pending task of the previous iteration
4. having a meeting separately with all the stakeholders

Answer: B. gaining knowledge or answering a question

A Spike is a special type of story that cannot be estimated until a development team runs a time-boxed investigation. It is used for activities such as exploration or research.

Q 23. Burnup and burndown charts used to measure the team’s capacity and the lead time and cycle time used to measure the team’s predictability. All of these measurements are useful for the _________.

1. in the moment measurements
2. long range measurements
3. cost performance measurements
4. schedule performance measurements

Answer: A. in the moment measurements

These measurements help a team understand how much more work

they have and whether the team might finish on time.

Q 24. The team has been assigned a feature for iteration. The team must choose between two approaches to build the feature. One approach is not yet proven but offers technical flexibility. The other is known, but may not offer technical flexibility that the team is looking for. How should the team make a decision?

1. Implement a spike to learn more about the technical considerations
2. Implement the feature using one of the approaches, and make the necessary changes in the project at a later stage when new information arrives
3. Place the feature on the impediments backlog
4. Defer the item, until detail technical information comes from the customer

Answer: A. Implement a spike to learn more about the technical considerations

A spike is an exceptional way of working when we feel we do not have enough information to give the customer realistic expectations. The goal of a spike is to establish those “expectations.”

Q 25. You just started working on a multimillion-dollar project with a small but dedicated team. You are assisting the product owner to prioritize the backlog by taking into account ______________.

1. high value and medium or low-risk features first
2. high risk features first
3. high risk and high value features last
4. high risk and high value features first

Answer: A. high value and medium or low-risk features first

The team is new and the project is just starting, there are many unknowns. It is always better to start with high value but medium to low-level risk features to understand team capabilities while delivering high value.

Q 26. What is osmotic communication?

1. Communication between two developers
2. A communication received by the subconscious brain
3. Verbal communication in daily stand-ups
4. A communication between upper management and product owner

Answer: B. A communication received by the subconscious brain

Osmotic communication means that the information flows into the background hearing of the team so that they pick up relevant information as though by osmosis.

Q 27. ________ is a software development framework to give customer satisfaction and deliver frequently.

1. XP
2. Scrum
3. Kanban
4. RUP

Answer: A. XP

XP is a software development framework to give customer satisfaction, deliver frequently and be able to respond to requirement changes even late in the lifecycle.

Q 28. Below the benefits of Collective Code Ownership, EXCEPT:

1. Shared knowledge of the code
2. Simpler code
3. Get things done quickly
4. Coded, tested, integrated, and ready to deploy in production

Answer: D. Coded, tested, integrated, and ready to deploy in production

Collective code ownership spreads responsibility for maintaining the code to all programmers; everyone shares responsibility for the quality of the code developed. Nothing to do with the development process. 

Q 29. Technical debt refers to the work that the team

1. Completes during iteration
2. Inform the customer and perform the next step
3. Make a note to fix the build in the next iteration
4. Fails to do during iterations

Answer: D. Fails to do during iterations

These tasks accumulate from iteration to iteration and ultimately lead to requirements of more time and cost at the end of the project.

Q 30. Which of the following should NOT be reported on the information radiator?

1. The current work assignments, the important dates, and people in the project
2. A graph showing the progress of work
3. The number of stories delivered
4. The URL for test servers

Answer: D. The URL for test servers

An information radiator is a board kept in a place where everyone can easily see and read the content. It shows the project status – which iterations, current tasks, key deliverables, test results, and more.

Q 31. What are the characteristics of a good 

information radiator?

1. Information that is detailed and updated periodicallyInformation that is easy to notice
2. Information that is not easily accessible to everyone
3. Information that exists in electronic format for easy transmission

Answer: B. Information that is easy to notice

This board allows the sharing of sufficient communication available with fewer interruptions to the team.

Q 32. Which chart helps an agile practitioner understand changes in scope over iterations?

1. Task graph
2. Release bar chart
3. Product backlog
4. Release burnup chart

Answer: D. Release burnup chart

Any changes to the release backlog will show in the release burnup

chart.

Q 33. The _______ diagram provides a full view of activities happening in the project.

1. Cumulative flow
2. Burnup
3. Burndown
4. Control chart

Answer: A. Cumulative flow

The cumulative flow diagram provides a full view of the activities happening in the project. This diagram tracks total scope and progress, various stages on the way to being complete.

Q 34. Which of the following performance parameters set for an Agile project is primary?

1. Value
2. Quality
3. Scope
4. Schedule

Answer: A. Value

Delivering business value is a major goal of agile philosophy. The agile manifesto states that “Working software over comprehensive documentation” and Agile principles ensures that the team produces value by delivering a working software or product. 

Q 35. Priority should be given to delivering ____________.

1. wireframe
2. sprint planning
3. product backlog planning
4. working product

Answer: D. working product

Working software over comprehensive documentation (value) recommends providing a value such as a working product and then enough documentation.

Q 36. The primary objective of continuous integration is to ensure that______________.

1. proper feedback mechanisms consistently and accurately collect data and information for process improvement
2. teams operate effectively throughout all phases of a project
3. product features fit together into an integrated whole early and reduce costs in testing
4. external stakeholder expectations are integrated into project milestones

Answer: C. product features fit together into an integrated whole early and reduce costs in testing

Continuous integration allows teams to integrate all this work on a regular basis.

Q 37. Agile project management is ________________ model and not ________________ model.

1. adaptive, a control
2. a planning and control, an execution-biased
3. an execution-biased, a value-driven
4. a planning and control biased ,a value-driven

Answer: A. adaptive, a control

Agile Project management is adaptive to the changing project environment and plans as needed.

Q 38. Refactoring involves__________.

1. converting to the final production version
2. improving efficiency and performance
3. reorganizing the code without affecting functionality
4. Editing software coding to use the team’s global parameters

Answer: C. reorganizing the code without affecting functionality

Refactoring is the process of code improvement where code is reorganized and rewritten to make it more clear, efficient and easier to understand.

Q 39. Which of the following activities will not add value to product development when a project leader executes a project?

1. Reaching critical design decision
2. Prioritization of product backlog
3. Preparing a presentation
4. Participating in retrospectives

Answer: C. Preparing a presentation

Preparing a time-consuming presentation not seen as a value-added activity.

Q 40. Which of the following best summarizes what is happening in the iteration, according to the burn-up chart pictured here?

1. The team is on track to complete all the items in the sprint.
2. The team is at risk of having items incomplete at the end of the iterations; the team may need to consider making an adjustment.
3. The team is on track to complete all the items in the sprint early. If the trend continues, they may need to add a scope.
4. The team is trending toward an early release; they should negotiate a new deadline

Answer: B. The team is at risk of having items incomplete at the end of the iterations; the team may need to consider making an adjustment.

The team is lagging behind the planned development. Unless the team makes adjustments, they might not be able to finish as planned. 

Q 41. An Agile team exhibits a Level 3 conflict. Its members are using personal attacks to win the argument. The most appropriate response to this situation is to:

1. Initiate a collaboration session to solve the problem.
2. Generate a Force Field diagram to visualize the conflict.
3. Encourage the team to accommodate each other’s views.
4. Call for a democratic team vote on the opposing sides of the argument.

Answer: C. Encourage the team to accommodate each other’s views.

Level 3 conflict, people begin to align themselves with one side or the other and may not be ready to move beyond blaming. It is better to encourage the team to accommodate each other’s views.

Q 42. Individual coaching is most appropriate during:

1. Daily Standups
2. Iteration Review
3. Iteration Retrospective
4. None of the above

Answer: D. None of the above

Individual coaching should be done one on one, while no other team

members around. 

Q 43. Self-assessment is the process of looking at oneself in order to understand:

1. Likes & dislikes
2. Values
3. Personal characteristics
4. All of the above

Answer: D. All of the above

Self-assessment is the process of looking at oneself in order to understand strengths, weaknesses, likes, dislikes, values, needs and personal characteristics. It is one of the key elements that drive self evaluation, along with self-verification and self-enhancement.

Q 44. Which of the following terms refers to the ability to feel one’s instinctive reaction to a situation, notice it, and consciously decide what to do with it?

1. Rapid analysis
2. Emotional intelligence
3. Empowerment
4. Coaching

Answer: B. Emotional intelligence

Emotional intelligence (EI) is the ability to monitor, control and influence the emotions and feelings of oneself and other people’s emotions to guide the thinking and behavior of others.

Q 45. How to build effective team communications?

1. Teach the team to how to be an effective communicator
2. Avoid communication blockers
3. Have a team space
4. All of the above

Answer: D. All of the above

Building and maintaining internal and external team communication is a key success factor for any project. 

Q 46. What are the four processes that a team will go through according to the Bruce Tuckman model?

1. Forming, Storming, Exceeding, Normalizing
2. Succeeding, Excelling, Devoting, Leading
3. Performing, Normalizing, Succeeding, Acting
4. Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing

Answer: D. Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing

An Agile team, similar to a regular team, goes through team formation stages to reach the collaborative performing stage.

Q 47. Among the following activities, which one is NOT performed by an Agile team?

1. Estimate the iteration backlog items
2. Participate in daily stand-up meetings
3. Work on iteration backlog items
4. Prioritize the product backlog

Answer: D. Prioritize the product backlog

The product owner is responsible for prioritizing the product backlog.

Q 48. An ideal way to forecast velocity is to_________.

1. use cone of uncertainty
2. use expert judgment
3. use analogy based method
4. observe velocity

Answer: D. observe velocity

To find out the team’s velocity, the team should have completed at least one iteration.

Q 49. Which of the following is NOT a method of getting product feedback?

1. Release into market
2. Daily stand-up
3. Focus group
4. Iteration demo

Answer: B. Daily stand-up

Daily stands for the team to update other team members about their current work and inform them if they have any impediments.

Q 50. As part of the iteration goal, the Agile team worked on six user stories. At the end of the iteration, the customer accepted four user stories and rejected two. What should the team do with the rejected stories?

1. Moves rejected stories back onto the backlog
2. Converts the rejected stories into defects
3. Negotiates with the customer to accept the stories
4. Requests an extension of the current iteration to finish the rejected user stories

Answer: A. Moves rejected stories back onto the backlog

The product owner can re-prioritize the backlog

Q 51. In an agile environment, the product quality is measured with the help of_________.

1. total defects logged by the testers.
2. total defects fixed by the development team
3. total tests passed with customer acceptance
4. total tests automated by an Agile team

Answer: B. total tests passed with customer acceptance

Customer or Product Owner is the only one who accepts or rejects the product developed.

Q 52. What is test-driven development?

1. Writing acceptance tests for the developed feature.
2. Writing unit tests for each method before writing the code.
3. Writing unit tests for each method after writing the code.
4. Writing integration tests for the developed feature.

Answer: C. Writing unit tests for each method before writing the code.

Tests are written as programs rather than data so that they can be executed automatically. The test includes a check that it has executed correctly.

Q 53. The Managing Director (MD) of the organization stops by the task board of the team and makes a suggestion of an important feature that the development team should deliver in the current iteration. What should the development team do?

1. Since it is coming from the MD, it must be done at any cost. So drop an item of equal size from the backlog.
2. Say yes to the MD and then ask the team members to work overtime to achieve their target.
3. Ask the product owner so that he can discuss the value and priorities with the MD.
4. Ignore it, the MD will most likely forget what he said a few weeks later

Answer: C. Ask the product owner so that he can discuss the value and priorities with the MD.

Q 54. A newly formed development team is working on Sprint zero. In terms of doing the following activities, which is false?

1. Team completes the entire architecture and high-level design for the project, leaving out the low-level design.
2. Develop the detailed project plan.
3. Deliver a few stories.
4. All of the above.

Answer: D. All of the above

Q 55. Who makes the final call on priority order in the Product Backlog?

1. The Development Team
2. The Scrum Master
3. The Product Owner
4. Someone in senior leadership like the MD or the CEO

Answer: C. The Product Owner

Q 56. With respect to the roles on a Scrum team, choose the odd one out?

1. Scrum Master
2. Product Owner
3. Development Team
4. Project Manager

Answer: D. Project Manager

Q 57. The Development Team is expected to have all the skills needed to:

1. Complete the project by the given deadline and budget shared upfront with the sponsor.
2. Do analysis and development work, but leave out all forms of testing since that is handled by another specialized team.
3. Turn the Product Backlog items into potentially shippable product increments.
4. Master all state-of-the-art technology practices and tools available.

Answer: C. Turn the Product Backlog items into potentially shippable product increments.

Q 58. What is the main way that a Scrum Master contributes to maximizing the productivity in the development team?

1. By maintaining a risk-adjusted Product Backlog in priority order.
2. By making sure hygiene is maintained on meeting – agendas, start & end times, capturing and sending out minutes, etc.
3. By facilitating Development Team decisions and removing impediments.
4. By providing news about the newest technology trends in the market.

Answer: C. By facilitating Development Team decisions and removing impediments.

Q 59. All of the following are Scrum artifacts except:

1. Product backlog
2. Gantt chart
3. Sprint backlog
4. Burndown chart

Answer: B. Gantt chart

Q 60. During an estimation session each team member is asked to provide an estimate. Which of the following is correct?

1. The team member provides estimates for only the story that will be assigned to him.
2. The developer provides a development estimate, the analyst provides an analysis estimate and the tester does his part. Ultimately all the estimates are aggregated.
3. The team members provide a relative estimate in units of ideal days.
4. Participation of a team member is voluntary as the Scrum Master can fillin wherever necessary.

Answer: C. The team members provide a relative estimate in units of ideal days.

Q 61. A project stakeholder wants to have a look at how the Agile team is progressing in the middle of an iteration. As a member of the Agile team, you can guide him to:

1. The most recent weekly status report.
2. The sprint backlog.
3. The defect log.
4. The combined burnup and burndown charts.

Answer: D. The combined burnup and burndown charts.

Q 62. XP teams take collective ownership of code. For such a team,________ and ________are the key.

1. Definition of done and pair programming.
2. Trust and collaboration.
3. Velocity and co-location.
4. Onsite customer and test-driven development.

Answer: B. Trust and collaboration.

Q 63. Barry is a team member currently in a sprint planning session. After hearing about the requirement from the product owner, he estimates the amount of effort required by taking account that he will be working on this story and nothing else. He assumes that he will not face any interruptions. Which unit of estimate is he using?

1. Story points
2. T-shirt sizes
3. Ideal days
4. Either A or C

Answer: C. Ideal days

Q 64. What is the primary role of a Product Owner?

1. The PO is basically a project manager who balances scope, time, cost and risk.
2. Maximizing the Return on Investment (ROI) of the software developed.
3. People management for the Team.
4. Avoiding distracting and keeping stakeholders at bay.

Answer: B. Maximizing the Return on Investment (ROI) of the software developed.

Q 65. Which of the two ceremonies are executed after all development for a sprint and beginning of the next one?

1. Sprint review and sprint retrospective
2. Sprint review and sprint planning
3. Daily stand-up and sprint review
4. Sprint retrospective and sprint planning

Answer: A. Sprint review and sprint retrospective

Q 66. Kanban board is an example of:

1. Toyota production system
2. Information refrigerator
3. High-tech and low-touch system
4. Information radiator

Answer: D. Information radiator

Q 67. What happens during a Sprint Review?

1. Review of what the team could do more or less off during the next sprint.
2. Figure out the scope for the next sprint.
3. End of the sprint demo for everyone to solicit feedback on the work done in the sprint.
4. It is an opportunity to brainstorm and do a root cause analysis of work items that could not get done.

Answer: C. End of the sprint demo for everyone to solicit feedback on the work done in the sprint.

Q 68. How do we know when a sprint isover?

1. When all items in the sprint goal have met their definition of done.
2. When the Product Meeting owner accepts all the work that was committed in the sprint planning 
3. When the timebox expires.
4. None of the above.

Answer: C. When the timebox expires.

Q 69. While inspecting a release burndown chart, it is observed that the bar graph moves below its X-axis. Choose the best conclusion.

1. This is normal. Scope could have gotten added by the product owner.
2. This is normal. The developers would have underestimated the complexity of the story.
3. This is abnormal and indicates poor data quality being plotted on the burndown chart. The bar graph can touch the X-axis, but not go below it.
4. This is abnormal. The team should have completed what was committed by them.

Answer: A. This is normal. Scope could have gotten added by the product owner.

Q 70. Under what condition can a sprint be abnormally terminated?

1. When the PO determines that it no longer makes sense to carry on with a sprint.
2. The team has overcommitted and the sprint scope is too large to be achieved.
3. A production defect needs to be addressed by priority.
4. There is another project for which some analysis needs to be completed by the SME’s in the current team.

Answer: A. When the PO determines that it no longer makes sense to carry on with a sprint.

Q 71. During a planning session, the product owner and the team sit down together and sort the stories from the backlog into must-have, should-have, could-have and won’t-have. The must-haves top the chart and along with those a few should-haves get selected for implementation during the iteration. Which prioritization technique did the team follow?

1. Kano model analysis.
2. Weighted prioritization technique.
3. Simple ranking technique.
4. MoSCoW.

Answer: D. MoSCoW.

Q 72. In Agile vocabulary. a spike is a:

1. Sudden increase in the quantum of work received.
2. Sudden increase in the quantum of risks.
3. Sudden increase in the resource demand.
4. A task that the team undertakes to experiment on a hypothesis or a new technology.

Answer: D. A task that the team undertakes to experiment on a hypothesis or a new technology.

Q 73. Fill in the blanks for the following Agile principle.

Build projects around_______individuals. Give them the environment and________they need and______them to get the job done.

1. cross-functional, training, trust
2. empowered, support, believe
3. self-motivated, support, believe
4. motivated, morale boost, trust

Answer: C. self-motivated, support, believe

Q 74. An XP team realizes that a story is more complex than estimated earlier and so it cannot be completed in the current iteration. Which option should the team exercise?

1. At the next daily stand-up, propose that the “definition of done” condition be relaxed to allow the partially completed story to look close to being completed.
2. Extend the iteration by 3-4 days, as you cannot let the team’s velocity go down.
3. Discard the code and put the story back to the backlog for future prioritization and implementation in a successive sprint.
4. Keep the code commented so it does not do any harm and tell the customer you will pick up and complete in the next iteration.

Answer: C. Discard the code and put the story back to the backlog for future prioritization and implementation in a successive sprint.

Q 75. Some teams use a hardening sprint ahead of a release to:

1. Train the operations team so that they can support the product post-release.
2. Complete some of the final tasks related to productionizing of the code.
3. Perform acceptance testing for all the previous sprints that were part of the release.
4. Ask all programmers to check-in all the code in version control.

Answer: B

Q 76. An Agile team is using relative sizing to estimate for stories on the backlog. What are the most common units of estimates used?

1. Days / weeks / months
2. Story points
3. Ideal days
4. Either B or C

Answer: D. Either B or C

Q 77. Bill has worked hard over the last few days and finds that the build is broken because Richard has checked in code without properly unit testing it. It will mean that Bill will have to wait until Richard comes back and fixes the issue. Bill is furious at Richard and he makes statements like, “I know Richard. He is always careless and doesn’t bother how others get affected by his actions.”

Which stage of conflict do you think is reflected in Bill’s language?

1. Level 1: Problem to Solve
2. Level 2: Disagreement
3. Level 3: Contest
4. Level 5: World War

Answer: C. Level 3: Contest

Q 78. The two highest levels of conflict are Level 4: Crusade where there is hardly any direct speaking terms and Level 5: World war where the conflict is escalated to a level that is beyond repair and resolutions.

As a manager encountering the situation, which are the best approaches you will follow to resolve conflicts?

1. For Level 4: use shuttle diplomacy until the intensity of the conflict is lowered and team members can be brought into a table discussion. For Level 5: separate the team members such that they do not cause harm to each other or to the environment.
2. For Level 4: use problem solving to get to the bottom of the issue. For Level 5: ask one party to compromise on a stand that they have rigidly held.
3. For level 4: separate the team members such that they do not cause harm to each other or to the environment. For Level 5: bring in a third party and take the two team members to battle out in the court.
4. For Level 4: remind the two members that they need to collaborate and reach consensus, even if that means that they will have to sacrifice. For Level 5: avoid the situation since nothing can be done about it.

Answer: A. For Level 4: use shuttle diplomacy until the intensity of the conflict is lowered and team members can be brought into a table discussion. For Level 5: separate the team members such that they do not cause harm to each other or to the environment.

Q 79. What is the formula for Risk severity? And how do you expect risks to change during a project?

1. Risk severity = Risk probability + Risk impact. We expect risks to be highest at the beginning and decrease over time.
2. Risk severity = Risk probability × Risk impact. We expect risks to be highest at the beginning and decrease over time.
3. Risk severity = Risk probability × Risk impact. We expect risks to be lowest at the beginning and increase over time.
4. Risk severity = Risk probability × Risk impact. We expect risks to be highest at the beginning and remain static until the project is over.

Answer: B. Risk severity = Risk probability × Risk impact. We expect risks to be highest at the beginning and decrease over time.

Q 80. The product owner is not able to commit enough time for the Scrum team. He is however, very supportive and leading the cause for the project. Who could be the best choice of a proxy user?

1. Technical lead of the project who knows the ins and outs of the product.
2. UX designers because they have close proximity to the business and knows how the UI is expected to behave.
3. A business analyst reporting to the product owner since she will be able to articulate the user stories in plain business language that is free from technical jargon.
4. A customer care representative who interacts with the real users on a daily basis and resolves support tickets.

Answer: C. A business analyst reporting to the product owner since she will be able to articulate the user stories in plain business language that is free from technical jargon.

Q 81. Which is the odd line out of the following?

1. Responding to change over following a plan.
2. Customer collaboration over contract negotiation.
3. Customer interactions over processes and tools.
4. Working software over comprehensive documentation.

Answer: C. Customer interactions over processes and tools.

Q 82. A reflection workshop is also called:

1. Sprint review
2. Sprint retrospective
3. Backlog grooming session
4. None of the above

Answer: B. Sprint retrospective

Q 83. Richard joins as an Agile coach and observes that there are a few Scrum teams working on a single product that is used by financial planners. The teams are struggling to arrive at a common “definition of done.” What should Richard do?

1. Richard should give each development team freedom to choose their definition of done. Reconcile differences only during the hardening sprint.
2. Richard should give each development team freedom to choose their definition of done, as far as there is convergence and common ground at the time of integration such that the product is potentially releasable.
3. Richard should ignore the situation. It’s too messy too get involved in day-to-day work of the development.
4. Richard should get hands-on, laying out the definition of done himself and teach all development teams how to follow them.

Answer: B. Richard should give each development team freedom to choose their definition of done, as far as there is convergence and common ground at the time of integration such that the product is potentially releasable.

Q 84. Agile teams use personas that are imaginary user roles to provide a real-life flavor of the users interacting with the system. While building a persona, which of the following relevant information should they include?

1. Age and gender
2. Educational and Professional background
3. A name and a picture
4. All of the above

Answer: D. All of the above

Q 85. Agile teams practice value-based delivery. While determining and delivering value, who are we targeting?

1. Users
2. Developers
3. Product owners
4. Testers

Answer: A. Users

Q 86. Alistair Cockburn has introduced the Crystal family of methodologies, which consists of Crystal clear, Crystal yellow, crystal red, crystal maroon. What are the core differences between them?

1. From left to right, they denote progressively increasing complexity of projects.
2. From left to right, they denote progressively increasing complexity of projects.
3. From left to right, they denote progressively increasing size of teams working on projects.
4. All of the above.

Answer: D. All of the above.

Q 87. A team hires you as an Agile coach to see if the team’s efficiency could be enhanced and the velocity improved. What could be your recommendation to improve velocity?

1. Have the team commit to fewer stories every sprint, so the probability of getting them completed in time are more.
2. Reduce the daily-stand-up meetings from 15 to 10 minutes.
3. Suggest bringing in the business representative to sit together with the development team.
4. Compare velocities of similar projects running in the same organization and present them to the team.

Answer: C. Suggest bringing in the business representative to sit together with the development team.

Q 88. Barry joined as an Agile coach and he wants to improve the way the team conducts retrospective meetings. He states that there are 5 stages for effective retrospectives. They follow the sequence of:

1. Set the Stage, Gather Data, Generating Insights, Decide What to Do, Wrap up.
2. Set the Stage, Generating Insights, Gather Data, Decide What to Do, Wrap up.
3. Set the Stage, Decide What to Do, Generating Insights, Gather Data, Wrap up.
4. Set the Stage, Gather Data, Decide What to Do, Generating Insights, Wrap up.

Answer: A. Set the Stage, Gather Data, Generating Insights, Decide What to Do, Wrap up.

Q 89. The Scrum team owns the sprint burndown chart. What is the primary significance of the chart?

1. Use as a base for weekly status reports for senior management.
2. An Agile team is characterized with information radiators on team walls. A sprint burndown chart is a relevant artifact for putting up on the team wall.
3. Team can view their daily progress and adapt based on the situation.
4. Keep other stakeholders at bay. Those who are interested in knowing the status can view the sprint burndown chart and not bother the development team.

Answer: C. Team can view their daily progress and adapt based on the situation.

Q 90. The acronym TIMWOOD is used to describe the 7 wastes in Lean. The letters T, M and D stand for:

1. Transport, Machine, Defects
2. Turnaround time, Motion, Defects
3. Transport, Machine, Deliberate
4. Transport, Motion, Defects

Answer: D. Transport, Motion, Defects

Q 91. The Japanese words Muda, Kanban and Kaizen respectively mean:

1. Waste, signboard, continuous improvement
2. Waste, billboard, continuous integration
3. Improvement, signboard, continuous removal of waste
4. None of these

Answer: A. Waste, signboard, continuous improvement

Q 92. A new team member Billy, fresh from college, joins the team and sees that at every workstation two developers are sitting next to each other. One of them is typing code and the other is looking on and giving some suggestions at times. Billy thinks that privacy could be lost and discusses this with his mentor. His mentor explains that the team is following XP methodology and are involved in _________.

1. Sharing best practices sitting next to each other.
2. Pair programming.
3. One is coding and the other is deciding on test cases based on the code written.
4. Coaching session for coding skills.

Answer: C. One is coding and the other is deciding on test cases based on the code written.

Q 93. The_________is also called “the voice of the customer”?

1. Development manager
2. Scrum Master
3. Product Owner
4. Sponsor

Answer: C. Product Owner

Q 94. An Agile team is in its formative stage. One of the first few things that they want to do is determine the length of an iteration. Which is the most important factor to make this decision?

1. Determine the estimate of the longest story, convert from story points to man-days and then choose the iteration size to accommodate that.
2. Look up historical data from other projects and teams.
3. Discuss with project stakeholders on how long they can go without demonstrating progress or giving feedback.
4. Follow guidelines from the Scrum Master since he is the most seasoned player in the team and has had a varied experience running Scrum teams elsewhere.

Answer: C. Discuss with project stakeholders on how long they can go without demonstrating progress or giving feedback.

Q 95. The commitments made by the product owner to the team include the following EXCEPT?

1. Bring a prioritized list of features from the backlog to the planning meeting.
2. Clarify requirements as and when asked by the team.
3. Resist any temptation of changing scope midway through a sprint.
4. Mandatorily attend every daily-standup meeting.

Answer: D. Mandatorily attend every daily-standup meeting.

Q 96. The product owner creates an elevator speech to articulate the vision of a product to the Agile team and its stakeholders. The elevator speech is expected to contain all of the following attributes EXCEPT:

1. Who is the target customer?
2. What is the key benefit that the customer will get by using the product?
3. Location and the technology where the product will be developed and tested.
4. What differentiates it from its competitors?

Answer: C. Location and the technology where the product will be developed and tested.

Q 97. All the following are Agile methodologies EXCEPT:

1. Test-driven development
2. Feature-driven development
3. Extreme Programming
4. Scrumban

Answer: A. Test-driven development

Q 98. Who is responsible for prioritization of stories, epics and features in the product backlog?

1. Product owner
2. Product owner with inputs gathered from
3. ScrumMaster
4. Development team

Answer: B. Product owner with inputs gathered from

Q 99. The Scrum team has committed for a sprint goal. Midway during the sprint, the team discovers that there are some new tasks that need to be done before the committed stories are completed. However, given the time constraint, the team feels it cannot be done. What are the things the team should do now?

1. Abandon the sprint.
2. Bring it up during the daily-standup and then discuss proactively with the product owner.
3. Hope for the best and let the stakeholders know during the sprint review that some stories were not completed.
4. Find someone to blame.

Answer: B. Bring it up during the daily-standup and then discuss proactively with the product owner.

Q 100. The marketing team is looking for firm commitments from an Agile team based on the estimates that came out of the Affinity estimation session held by the team. What could possibly be wrong in that approach?

1. Affinity estimation is a very quick estimation technique used for release planning and generally precision of estimates is not the goal.
2. The marketing team should direct all their requirements to the product owner and not approach the Agile team directly.
3. Agile estimates are a relative measure of size. They should not be treated as commitments.
4. A and C.

Answer: D. A and C.

Q 101. At the time of release planning, an epic was estimated to have 13 story points. However, during iteration planning, when the epic was broken down into stories and tasks, the sum of the estimates came to about 15 story points. Choose the most appropriate option below.

1. This is likely to happen as the estimates don’t necessarily add up.
2. This is likely to happen as the estimates are done by different people at different times.
3. This is likely to happen as the estimates are less accurate at a release level.
4. This is a mistake, as it appears that somewhere there was a scope creep, that is, addition of 2 story points.

Answer: A. This is likely to happen as the estimates don’t necessarily add up.

Q 102. All the following could belong to the definition of done of a team EXCEPT:

1. Code has been checked into version control.
2. Code has passed through the integration test cases and regression suite.
3. Acceptance test cases have passed.
4. Daily Scrum meetings have been attended.

Answer: D. Daily Scrum meetings have been attended.

Q 103. An Agile team is coming together for the first time. They have no prior experience working together, but would like to estimate an initial velocity to target. All the following options are possible EXCEPT:

1. Use historical values as the working environment and the technology used is the same as a previous project.
2. Run an iteration and observe the velocity.
3. Make a forecast by breaking stories into tasks and see what fits.
4. Use the velocity from any arbitrary project team. The level of accuracy does not matter since the team is new.

Answer: D. Use the velocity from any arbitrary project team. The level of accuracy does not matter since the team is new.

Q 104. During a series of conflicts, you get to hear one party blaming the other by generalizing statements like, “They are always late – no surprises in that,” “He has forgotten to check-in the file and again! Careless as ever!” Referring to Lea’s conflict model, which stage do you think the team members are in?

1. Problem to solve.
2. Arbitration.
3. Crusade.
4. World war.

Answer: C. Crusade.

Q 105. Which of the following statements is not true?

1. Higher the IRR the better, higher the BCR the better.
2. Higher the IRR the better, lower the payback period the better.
3. Higher the NPV the better, higher the IRR the better.
4. Higher the NPV the better, higher the payback period the better.

Answer: D. Higher the NPV the better, higher the payback period the better.

Q 106. Leaving low-priority requirements at a high level, but sufficiently detailing out the high priority (and immediate) ones is called________.

1. Incremental development.
2. Progressive elaboration.
3. Version control.
4. Continuous improvement.

Answer: B. Progressive elaboration.

Q 107. Retrospectives can be held:

1. After an iteration.
2. After a release.
3. After an unexpected and a significant event in the project.
4. Any of the above.

Answer: D. Any of the above.

Q 108. What does the acronym MMF stand for?

1. Maximum Marketable Feature
2. Minimal Marketable Feature
3. Maximum Measurable Feature
4. Must-have and Marketable Function

Answer: B. Minimal Marketable Feature

Q 109. Which of the following do you NOT expect to see on an information radiator for an Agile team?

1. Gantt chart
2. Task board
3. Burnup chart
4. Velocity trends

Answer: A. Gantt chart

Q 110. For an emergency reason Richard, the product owner could not make it to the sprint planning meeting. Who do you think could be in a position to play his role for the time being?

1. The self-organized team.
2. The development manager.
3. The Scrum Master.
4. The CEO who is closely aligned to the project.

Answer: C. The Scrum Master.

Q 111. Which of the following statements is false?

1. Agile projects do just-in-time planning.
2. Agile projects balance progress and flexibility.
3. Agile projects do not require a PMO.
4. Agile projects value collaboration over documentation.

Answer: C. Agile projects do not require a PMO.

Q 112. Team A has a velocity of 20 story points and Team B has 40 story points over a 3-week iteration. What does this mean?

1. Team B is twice more efficient than Team A.
2. Team B has double the capacity (team size) than Team A.
3. Team B is more mature, uses sophisticated tools and achieves more in the same time.
4. Nothing. Velocity of two teams cannot be compared.

Answer: D. Nothing. Velocity of two teams cannot be compared.

Q 113. The three levels of active listening are:

1. Level I – Internal Listening, Level II – Focused Listening, Level III – Global Listening.
2. Level I – Focused Listening, Level II – Internal Listening, Level III – Global Listening.
3. Level I – Internal Listening, Level II – Global Listening, Level III – Focused Listening.
4. Varies based on the circumstances.

Answer: A. Level I – Internal Listening, Level II – Focused Listening, Level III – Global Listening.

Q 114. After the story writing workshop the team has come up with a set of 80 story cards that need to be very quickly estimated such that the release plan can be built. The product owner is interested in getting this completed in less than 2 hours. Which estimation technique is best suited for this purpose?

1. Work breakdown structure or bottom-up estimation.
2. Planning Poker.
3. Affinity estimation.
4. Delphi.

Answer: C. Affinity estimation.

Q 115. The DEEP acronym is used to describe the characteristics of a product backlog. The acronym stands for

1. Detailed Appropriately, Estimated, Emergent, Prioritized.
2. Detailed Appropriately, Economic, Emergent, Prioritized.
3. Defined properly, Estimated, Emergent, Prioritized.
4. Defined properly, Estimated, Enlisted, Probabilistic.

Answer: A. Detailed Appropriately, Estimated, Emergent, Prioritized.

Q 116. Passing of acceptance test cases is an example of:

1. Definition of ready
2. Definition of done
3. Collective ownership
4. Teamwork

Answer: B. Definition of done

Q 117. The INVEST acronym is used to describe the characteristics of user stories. The letters I, V and S in the acronym stands for:

1. Interesting, Verifiable, Small
2. Independent, Validatable, Small
3. Independent, Valuable, Specific
4. None of the above

Answer: D. None of the above

Q 118. Agile releases could be one of:

1. Feature-driven or Date-Driven.
2. Date-driven or Priority-driven.
3. Team-driven or feature-driven.
4. Both release dates and constituent features are variable and negotiated on the fly.

Answer: A. Feature-driven or Date-Driven.

Q 119. Sarah is joining an Agile team. On the first day she observes that the team has a task board that contains lots of sticky notes denoting tasks in various stages of progress. She is confused about the small numbers written next to column headers of the task board and asks her manager Jane about their significance. Jane explains that the numbers depict:

1. Velocity for each column in the task board.
2. Number of resources assigned for each column in the task board.
3. WIP limit.
4. Maximum number of escaped defects allowed per column.

Answer: C. WIP limit.

Q 120. XP programmers are required to continuously submit their code into the code repository and run a 10-minute build to assess whether anything has broken or not as a result of the newly made changes. This practice is called:

1. Continuous integration.
2. Continuous improvement.
3. Version control.
4. Informative team space.

Answer: A. Continuous integration.