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Practice Test 4

Q 1. Which of the following is an Agile Manifesto principle?

1. Welcome changing requirements early in development. Agile processes handle changes for the customer’s competitive advantage.
2. Welcome changing priorities early in development. Agile processes harness change for the customer’s competitive advantage.
3. Welcome changing priorities, even late in development. Agile processes handle changes for the customer’s competitive advantage.
4. Welcome changing requirements, even late in development. Agile processes harness change for the customer’s competitive advantage.

Answer: D. Welcome changing requirements, even late in development. Agile processes harness change for the customer’s competitive advantage. 

Welcome changing requirements, even late in development. Agile processes harness change for the customer’s competitive advantage is an Agile Manifesto principle (D), while the other options are made up. (A) and (B) focus on early development, while (C) mentions priorities which are all wrong.

Q 2. Which of the following is a common failure mode for a Scrum team?

1. Scrum master controls and commands the team
2. Product owner available on a day-to-day basis
3. Team being distributed
4. Eight team members

Answer: A. Scrum master controls and commands the team 

A common failure mode is the Scrum master command and controlling the team (A). An available product owner is positive (B) and eight team members (D) is also a good size, while team being distributed (C) is not a reason for failure.

Q 3. You have access to proprietary information a vendor included as part of a bid proposal. The information was marked confidential and was included to show that the vendor would be issued a patent by the end of the month, which makes this company’s bid the best candidate for your company and significantly improves the market share of the vendor. What do you do with this information?

1. Invest in the company immediately.
2. Tell your friends to invest in this company.
3. Wait until the information becomes public knowledge and then decide if you want to invest in the company.
4. Provide the proprietary information to a competing vendor.

Answer: C. Wait until the information becomes public knowledge and then decide if you want to invest in the company. 

It would not be ethical to invest in the company immediately (A) or tell your friends to invest in this company (B). Wait until the information becomes public knowledge, and then decide if you want to invest in the company. (C) is the best option here. Providing proprietary information to a competing vendor (D) is very unethical.

Q 4. You are Scrum master for a new team. Which of the following activities should you attend to?

1. Remove impediments
2. Take part in estimating user stories
3. Plan spikes
4. Act as project manager for the team

Answer: A. Remove impediments

The Scrum master should remove impediments (A), but not take part in estimating user stories (B), spikes (C), or even consider acting as project manager (D).

Q 5. Harry’s Agile team failed to complete a user story in its most recent iteration. What should Harry and his team do?

1. Collaborate with the customer to determine if and when the user story should be completed.
2. Immediately add the user story to the top of the next iteration’s backlog.
3. Finish the user story over the weekend or during other downtime.
4. Remove the user story from the project.

Answer: A. Collaborate with the customer to determine if and when the user story should be completed. 

Harry’s Agile team should collaborate with the customer to determine if and when the user story should be completed (A). Immediately adding the user story to the top of the next iteration’s backlog is a decision to be made by the product owner, not the team (B). Finish the user story over the weekend or other downtime (C) is not an option as sprints are timeboxed. Remove the user story from the project (D) is not possible, as it is prioritized by the product owner to be completed.

Q 6. Your team is estimating using the planning poker technique and you are in dire need of a break. What do you do?

1. Use the question mark card
2. Use the coffee cup card
3. Use the 100 mark card as it means break
4. Just take a short break without asking

Answer: B. Use the coffee cup card 

In planning poker the use of the question mark card (A) means “I don’t know” while the coffee cup card means “I need a break” (B). The 100 mark card is a high esteem card (C), while just leaving without asking may cause some debate (D).

Q 7. In Agile, planning is conducted using rolling-wave planning or successive elaboration; however, how else could we describe it?

1. Bottom-up planning
2. Adaptive planning
3. WBS planning
4. Adaptive leadership planning

Answer: B. Adaptive planning 

Another term for rolling-wave planning and successive elaboration is adaptive planning (B), while WBS planning (C), and adaptive leadership planning (D) are made up. Agile is top-down planning, not bottom-up (A).

Q 8. Who should decide what the Definition of Done criteria should be for the team?

1. The team
2. The team and the Scrum master
3. The team and the product owner
4. The team, the Scrum master, and the product owner

Answer: A. The team 

The Definition of Done criteria are decided by the team (A), and by no one else (B), (C), or (D).

Q 9. What do risk burn-down graphs show?

1. The impacts of project risks on the project schedule
2. The impacts of project risks on the project budget
3. The cumulative risk severities over time
4. The cumulative risk probabilities over time

Answer: C. The cumulative risk severities over time 

The risk burn-down graphs show the cumulative risk severities over time (C), while the impacts of project risks on the project schedule (A), the project budget (B), and the cumulative risk probabilities over time (D), are not shown. 

Q 10. Which element is not found in the project charter?

1. Assumptions
2. Constraints
3. Roles and Responsibilities
4. Earned Value Management

Answer: D. Earned Value Management 

Assumptions (A), constraints (B), and roles and responsibilities (C) are all found in the project charter, while Earned Value Management (D) is rarely the case.

Q 11. Your team has decided to use the EVM metrics and has data on Earned Value and Planned Value. What is missing?

1. AV
2. AC
3. SPI
4. CPI

Answer: B. AC 

For EVM you need EV, PV, and AC (B). AV (A) is made up while SPI (C) and CPI (D) can be measured based upon EV, PV, and AC.

Q 12. The main steps of vendor management include:

1. Administer procurements
2. Conduct procurements
3. Close procurements
4. All of the above

Answer: D. All of the above 

The main steps of vendor management include administer procurements (A), conduct procurements (B), and close procurements (C), which makes all of the above (D) the best choice.

Q 13. According to Scrum, an iteration planning meeting should last no longer than:

1. One hour
2. Four hours
3. Eight hours
4. One week

Answer: C. Eight hours 

According to Scrum, an iteration planning meeting should last no longer than eight hours (C).

Q 14. In a Scrum team, when are “risks” identified?

1. Daily scrum
2. Retrospective
3. Sprint review
4. All of the above

Answer: D. All of the above 

Risk can be identified at any time (D).

Q 15. Your team has been struggling and has now been shut down. What phase is the team in?

1. Adjourning
2. Storming
3. Norming
4. None of the above

Answer: A. Adjourning 

Adjourning is the close phase (A) and correct, while storming (B) and norming (C) are for ongoing teams. None of the above (D) is not the best option in this case.

Q 16. What does the XP phrase “caves and common” mean?

1. A single room where there is an open space on one side with information radiators and a whiteboard for meetings, and on the other side are programming cubicles
2. A common area that is public to team members and where osmotic communication and collaboration are at play; a cave area that is a reserved space for private business
3. A cave area where programmers may have peace and quiet for developing user stories and a common room for eating lunch and other social activities
4. A common area reserved for iteration reviews, daily stand-ups, and retrospectives, and a cave area reserved for the development team

Answer: A. A single room where there is an open space on one side with information radiators and a whiteboard for meetings, and on the other side are programming cubicles 

The XP phrase “caves and common” means a single room where an open space with information radiators and a whiteboard for meetings is on one side, and on the other side are programming cubicles (A). Osmotic communication and collaboration happens at the computers (B); caves and common areas are not for work (C) and (D).

Q 17. Which one of the following definitions describes the correct characteristics of the Scrum team?

1. Self-managing, Self-organizing, and Cross-functional
2. Self-directing, Self-organizing, and Cross-functional
3. Self-directing, Self-empowered, and Cross-functional
4. Self-monitoring, Self-managing, and Self-functioning

Answer: A. Self-managing, Self-organizing, and Cross-functional 

The team is self-managing, self-organizing, and cross-functional. Self-directing (B) self-empowered (C), and self-monitoring (D) are made up.

Q 18. The defects that are not found during the development phase are called:

1. Escaped defects
2. Customer found defects
3. Requirements defects
4. Missed defects

Answer: A. Escaped defects 

The defects that are not found during the development phase are called escaped defects (A), while the other options are made up.

Q 19. When using a Kanban board to manage work in progress, which of the following best summarizes the philosophy behind the approach?

1. It is a sign of the work being done and should be maximized to boost performance.
2. It is a sign of the work being done and should be limited to boost performance.
3. It is a sign of the work queued for quality assurance, which should not count toward velocity.
4. It is a sign of the work queued for user acceptance, which should not count toward velocity.

Answer: B. It is a sign of the work being done and should be limited to boost performance. 

It is a sign of the work being done and should be limited to boost performance (B) is the best answer since it summarizes the philosophy behind the approach. It does not maximize the performance (A) and it does count toward velocity (C) and (D).

Q 20. What Agile concept is closely related to Value Stream Mapping?

1. Maximize business value
2. Eliminate waste
3. Incremental integration
4. Minimize resource usage

Answer: B. Eliminate waste 

Eliminate waste is closely related to Value Stream Mapping (B), while the other options are irrelevant or made up in this case.

Q 21. Incremental delivery means that:

1. We deliver nonfunctional increments in the iteration retrospectives.
2. We release working software only after testing each increment.
3. We improve and elaborate our Agile process with each increment delivered.
4. We deploy functional increments over the course of the project.

Answer: C. We improve and elaborate our Agile process with each increment delivered. 

Incremental delivery means that we improve and elaborate our Agile process (C) with each increment delivered.

Q 22. How would the team improve the code without altering the functionality of the system?

1. Test-Driven Development
2. Test-First Development
3. Pair Programming
4. Refactoring

Answer: D. Refactoring 

Improving the data without changing the functionality is called refactoring (D) and has nothing to do with testing (A), (B), and (C).

Q 23. What tools or techniques are needed for value-based prioritization?

1. Return on Investment
2. The business case
3. The project charter
4. A risk-adjusted backlog

Answer: A. Return on Investment 

Tools and techniques for value-based prioritization are ROI (A), IRR, NPV, and similar, while the other options are not relevant to this question.

Q 24. What is a positive indicator that Agile may be appropriate to an organization as a new project methodology?

1. That the adopting organization values strict and inflexible project management practices
2. That the adopting organization values trust, collective ownership, and adaptability
3. That the adopting organization values hierarchical decision making
4. That the adopting organization values top-down management

Answer: B. That the adopting organization values strict and inflexible project management practices 

Strict and inflexible project management practices (A) is not a positive indication while adopting organization values trust, collective ownership, and adaptability (B) is. Adopting organization values hierarchical decision making (C) and adopting organization values top-down management (D) are not positive indicators.

Q 25. The team has accumulated significant technical debt. How could the team repay some of it?

1. Hire more people
2. Ask the product owner to reduce the backlog
3. Refactor the code
4. Change velocity

Answer: C. Refactor the code 

Hiring more people (A) is not an option for the team and the number of features in the backlog (B) would not reduce the current debt, which can be reduced by refactoring the code (C) so this is the best option. Change of velocity (D) has no effect at this stage.

Q 26. What is the purpose of asking the “5 Whys”?

1. To determine the scope of the sprint
2. To determine the root cause
3. To determine the end result
4. To determine the prioritized backlog

Answer: B. To determine the root cause 

The purpose of asking the “5 Whys” (B) is to determine the root cause.

Q 27. Which of the following statements is not true about Agile smell?

1. Loss of Rhythm
2. Flying Chickens
3. Missing Pigs
4. Persistent Signatures

Answer: B. Flying Chickens 

Agile smells include Loss of Rhythm (A), Missing Pigs (C), and Persistent Signatures (D), but not Flying Chickens (B)

Q 28. Your team is averaging 50 story points per week and has 400 story points left in the product backlog. How many weeks would you expect to need before all stories are completed?

1. 2 weeks
2. 6 weeks
3. 8 weeks
4. 10 weeks

Answer: C. 8 weeks  

400/50 = 8 weeks (C).

Q 29. Agile estimates are considered:

1. Collaborative
2. Team-based
3. Iterative
4. All of the above

Answer: D. All of the above 

Agile estimates are collaborative (A), team-based (B), and iterative (C), which makes all of the above (D) the best choice.

Q 30. When managing an Agile software team, engaging the business in prioritizing the backlog is an example of:

1. Technical risk reduction
2. Incorporating stakeholder values
3. Vendor management
4. Stakeholder story mapping

Answer: B. Incorporating stakeholder values 

When managing an Agile software team, engaging the business in prioritizing the backlog is an example of incorporating stakeholder value (B). Technical risk reduction (A) is conducted by the team while vendor management (C) in this case does not incorporate stakeholder value. Stakeholder story mapping (D) is rarely the case.

Q 31. What is the relationship between leadership and management in Agile?

1. Leadership is rarely applied.
2. Management is hardly applied.
3. Leadership and management are used together.
4. Leadership and management are not used together.

Answer: C. Leadership and management are used together. 

In Agile, management and leadership are used together (C).

Q 32. Agile expects uncertainty and manages it through what?

1. Iterations, estimation, and adaptation
2. Iterations, anticipation, and adaptation
3. Estimation, anticipation, and adaptation
4. Collaboration, iterations, and adaptation

Answer: B. Iterations, anticipation, and adaptation 

Agile expects uncertainty and manages it through iterations, anticipation, and adaptation (B).

Q 33. The optimal team size is most likely:

1. Between 1 and 4
2. Between 5 and 9
3. Between 10 and 13
4. Between 14 and 19

Answer: B. Between 5 and 9 

The optimal team size is most likely between 5 and 9 (B) or the number of people who can split two pizzas. Too few will not be enough to manage the work, while too many will result in free riders and ineffectiveness.

Q 34. High performance teams that listen well will not:

1. Be told more.
2. Be more effective.
3. Understand people better.
4. Resolve conflicts easier.

Answer: B. Be more effective. 

High-performance teams that listen well will be told more (A), understand people better (C), and be better at resolving conflicts (D); however, they will not be more effective (B).

Q 35. As part of stakeholder management and understanding, the team may undertake customer persona modeling. Which of the following would a persona not represent in this context?

1. Stereotyped users
2. Real people
3. Archetypal descriptions
4. Requirements

Answer: D. Requirements 

Customer persona modeling may include stereotyped users (A), real people (B), and archetypal description (C), while requirements (D) are not illustrated.

Q 36. The 12 principles of Agile Software indicate that businesspeople and developers must work together daily throughout the project; however, which of the following is not a practice that supports that?

1. Retrospectives
2. Whole Team
3. Osmotic Communication
4. Daily Scrum

Answer: A. Retrospectives 

Businesspeople and developers must work together daily throughout the project involves real customer Involvement, Whole Team (B), Osmotic Communication (C), and Daily Scrum (D); however; it does not involve retrospectives (A).

Q 37. Ralph is describing the INVEST acronym used for user story development in an Agile practitioner seminar. What does the “I” in INVEST stand for?

1. Incremental
2. Independent
3. Innovative
4. Iteration

Answer: B. Independent 

The “I” in INVEST stands for Independent (B).

Q 38. Which of the following techniques is a brainstorming technique?

1. SCAMPER
2. 5 Whys
3. Root-Cause analysis
4. Decision tree

Answer: A SCAMPER 

SCAMPER is a brainstorming technique just like brainwriting, pre-mortem, and such, while 5 Whys (B) and Root-Cause analysis (C) are for product quality. Decision trees (D) mostly are used for risk management.

Q 39. You are a Scrum master in a Scrum team. The product owner doesn’t want to prioritize items in the product backlog. He says everything is important. What is the best you can do?

1. Let the team work without prioritizing. In any case, you will have to deliver all the features. It is not a critical problem.
2. Be firm and insist on prioritizing.
3. Prioritize the product backlog yourself.
4. Let the team decide which features are most important.

Answer: B. Be firm and insist on prioritizing. 

The best thing is to be firm and insist on prioritization (B). The team needs the prioritization (A) and it does not prioritize itself (C), nor is it the team’s decision (D) to make the prioritizations for the business.

Q 40. What does the Speculate phase do?

1. Reviews delivered results and the team’s performance
2. Concludes the project and passes along key learning
3. Clearly identifies what needs to be done and how the work can be accomplished
4. Produces a release plan based on capabilities or stories

Answer: C. Clearly identifies what needs to be done and how the work can be accomplished 

The Speculate phase (C) clearly identifies what is to be done and how the work is to be accomplished.

Q 41. In communication what is most important?

1. Feelings and attitudes in the words that are spoken
2. The way that the words are said
3. Facial expression
4. All of the above

Answer: C. Facial expression 

55% of the message pertaining to feelings and attitudes is in facial (C) expression, which is the most important variable in terms of communication.

Q 42. What is the process cycle efficiency of a 2-hour meeting if it takes you 2 minutes to schedule the meeting in the online calendar tool and 8 minutes to write the agenda and email it to participants?

1. 90%
2. 8%
3. 92%
4. 96%

Answer: C. 92% 

92% 120 minutes of value (meeting) and 2 + 8 (10) minutes of non-valued time (C). The formula is 10/120 = 0.08. 100% – 8% = 92%.

Q 43. Leading adaptive work is based upon how many principles?

1. 4
2. 6
3. 8
4. 10

Answer: B. 6 

Leading adaptive work is based upon 6 (B) principles.

Q 44. The 12 practices of XP do not include:

1. Simplicity
2. On-site Customer
3. Planning
4. Refactoring

Answer: A. Simplicit

Simplicity is not an XP practice, while On-site Customer (B), Planning (C), and Refactoring (D) are.

Q 45. When is a good time for using feedback techniques?

1. During pair programming
2. During unit testing
3. During daily Scrums
4. All of the above

Answer: D. All of the above 

Feedback techniques are used at pair programming, unit testing, continuous integration, sprint planning meeting, daily Scrums, and sprint review (shippable product), which makes (D) the best choice.

46. Why does the Agile approach include the process of “inspection and adjustment”?

1. To improve customer value by incorporating the customer’s voice in the adaptive development process
2. To develop a risk mitigation plan for incomplete feature development
3. To track development scope, cost, and schedule errors
4. To ensure that the project plan and budget are strictly adhered to during project execution

Answer: A. To improve customer value by incorporating the customer’s voice in the adaptive development process 

The Agile approach includes the process of “inspection and adjustment” to improve customer value by incorporating the customer’s voice in the adaptive development process (A). To develop a risk-mitigation plan for incomplete feature development (B) is hardly relevant, while tracking development scope, cost, and schedule errors is also of little value for the team (C). The team does not apply a project plan (D).

Q 47. Recently you have been assigned as a product owner to a Scrum team that you have never worked with before. One week later, one of your company’s managers approaches you and asks to confirm that the project will be finished by the 6th of March. He says that he reviewed estimates given by your team and needs a commitment guarantee that it will be finished by the exact date. What is the most likely problem in this situation?

1. The manager should approach a Scrum master, not you.
2. Many managers confuse estimates with commitments. As soon as a team expresses an estimate, they are forced to commit to it.
3. You have been assigned to the project recently, therefore you are not able to make any commitments yet.
4. Agile teams don’t make any commitments to specific dates.

Answer: B.  Many managers confuse estimates with commitments. As soon as a team expresses an estimate, they are forced to commit to it. 

The problem is that many managers confuse estimates with commitments. As soon as the team expresses an estimate they are forced to commit to it (B).

Q 48. Who “owns” the iteration demo in Scrum?

1. Product manager
2. Scrum master
3. Product owner
4. Team

Answer: C. Product owner 

The iteration demo in Scrum is owned by the product owner (C).

Q 49. Which of the following statements is correct?

1. The cone of uncertainty logarithmically decays.
2. The cone of uncertainty widens as the project progresses.
3. The cone of uncertainty narrows as the project progresses.
4. The cone of uncertainty exponentially decays.

Answer: C. The cone of uncertainty narrows as the project progresses. 

The cone of uncertainty narrows as the project progresses. (C) is correct.

Q 50. Hofstede’s theory emphasizes four dimensions which do not include:

1. Individualism versus collectivism
2. Personal power
3. Uncertainty avoidance
4. Masculinity versus femininity

Answer: B. Personal power 

Option (B) is made up while (A), (C), and (D) are correct dimensions. The missing dimension is the power dimension, not personal power as suggested wrongly here.

Q 51. An Agile team is planning the tools they will use for the project. They are debating how they should show what work is in progress. Of the following options, which tool are they most likely to select?

1. User story backlog
2. Product roadmap
3. Task board
4. Work breakdown structure

Answer: C. Task board 

Work-in-progress is found on the task board (C), while the user story backlog (A) is not a log with WIP. The product roadmap (B) and WBS (D) are high-level descriptions and hold no WIP.

Q 52. When working with a globally distributed team, the most useful approach will be to:

1. Bring the entire team together for a diversity and sensitivity training day before starting the first iteration
2. Bring the entire group together for a big celebration at the end of the project
3. Bring the entire group together for a get-to-know-you session before starting the first iteration
4. Gather the entire team for a kickoff event and keep them working together for at least the first iteration

Answer: D. Gather the entire team for a kickoff event and keep them working together for at least the first iteration 

When working with a globally distributed team, the most useful approach would be to gather the entire team for a kickoff event and keep them working together for at least the first iteration (D). Bringing the entire team together for a diversity and sensitivity training day before starting the first iteration (A) may work well, but is not the best option. Bring the entire group together is fine but not for a big celebration at the end of the project (B). Bring the entire group together for a get-to-know-you session (C) before starting the first iteration may also work, but (D) is the best option.

Q 53. Which of the following is an innovative game?

1. 80/20 vision
2. Buy a feature
3. The master
4. Embrace the product tree

Answer: B. Buy a feature 

Buy a feature (B) is an innovative game.

Q 54. How does XP support knowledge sharing?

1. Collective code ownership
2. 45-hour working week
3. Team empowerment
4. Working in distributed teams

Answer: A. Collective code ownership 

XP does support knowledge sharing by collective code ownership (A).

Q 55. When are user stories first assigned to iterations?

1. During Crystal planning
2. During iteration planning
3. During release planning
4. During daily planning

Answer: C. During release planning 

User stories are first assigned to iterations during release planning (C).

Q 56. Which of the following is not a process of FDD?

1. Develop an Overall Mode
2. Build a Feature List
3. Plan by Feature
4. Execute a Feature

Answer: D. Execute a Feature 

Develop an Overall Mode (A), Build a Feature List (B), and Plan by Feature (C) are all FDD processes while Execute a Feature (D) is made up.

Q 57. Is it acceptable to extend the iteration for a few days in order to finish everything in the plan?

1. It depends.
2. It is not acceptable. Iteration is timeboxed.
3. Yes, you can extend an iteration in rare situations.
4. It is acceptable if the Scrum master took a decision.

Answer: B. It is not acceptable. Iteration is timeboxed. 

It is not acceptable to extend the iteration for a few days in order to finish everything in the plan because iterations are timeboxed (B) and Scrum masters cannot make any decisions.

Q 58. Agile Project Management is:

1. A control-biased model
2. An execution-biased model
3. A planning-biased model
4. A planning-and-control-biased model

Answer: B. An execution-biased model 

Agile Project Management is an execution-biased model (B) with limited focus on control and planning (A), (C), and (D).

Q 59. Which of the following is not a phase in the APM delivery framework?

1. Speculate
2. Envision
3. Explore
4. Planning

Answer: D. Planning 

Planning is not part of the APM framework. The phases are: Envision, Speculate, Explore, Adapt, and Close.

Q 60. The product backlog is:

1. Static and Incomplete
2. Static and Complete
3. Dynamic and Complete
4. Dynamic and Incomplete

Answer: D. Dynamic and Incomplete 

The product backlog is dynamic and incomplete (D) as it is an ongoing live artifact.

Q 61. Which of the following items is not a benefit associated with product demonstrations?

1. Learn about feature suitability
2. Learn about feature usability
3. Learn about feature estimates
4. Learn about new requirements

Answer: C. Learn about feature estimates 

Benefits associated with product demonstrations are learn about feature suitability (A), usability (B), and new requirements (D). However, since this is a not question, the answer is (C) learning about feature estimates.

Q 62. Compute the result of a PERT estimate with a realistic estimate of 15, a pessimistic estimate of 50, and an optimistic estimate of 10. This would result in:

1. 15
2. 20
3. 35
4. 52

Answer: B. 20 

(10 + (15 × 4) + 50)/6 = 20 (B).

Q 63. An Agile team is beginning a new release. Things are progressing a little slower than initially estimated. The project manager is taking a servant leadership approach. Which of the following actions is the project manager most likely to do?

1. Create a high-level scope statement and estimates.
2. Intervene in unproductive team arguments.
3. Do administrative activities for the team.
4. Demonstrate the system to senior executives.

Answer: C. Do administrative activities for the team. 

The project manager is most likely to do administrative activities for the team (C) while (A), (B), and (D) are conducted by the team.

Q 64. The Kanban Method is a change-management method derived from:

1. Toyota Production Systems (TPS)
2. Goldratt’s Theory of Contracts (ToC)
3. A and B
4. Scrum

Answer: C. A and B 

The Kanban Method is a change-management method derived from Toyota Production Systems (TPS) (A) and Goldratt’s Theory of Contracts (ToC) (B), which makes (C) the best choice. Kanban has nothing to do with Scrum (D).

Q 65. At the start of release planning, the team and product owner collaboratively explored the product owner’s conditions of satisfaction. Common factors in her conditions of satisfaction included scope, schedule, and budget. Why was quality not included in this list?

1. Quality is not considered as one of the common factors in a product owner’s conditions of satisfaction.
2. Quality is usually negotiated during iteration planning.
3. Quality is usually negotiated between the Scrum master and product owner, not with the team.
4. Agile teams typically prefer to treat quality as non-negotiable.

Answer: D. Agile teams typically prefer to treat quality as non-negotiable. 

Agile teams typically prefer to treat quality as non-negotiable (D).

Q 66. Who is required to attend the Retrospective meeting?

1. The team, the Scrum master, and the product owner
2. The team and the Scrum master
3. The team
4. The team and the product owner

Answer: B. The team and the Scrum master 

The team and Scrum master are required to attend the retrospective meeting, while the product owner attendance is optimal (A). Options (C) and (D) lack the Scrum master and/or may include the product owner.

Q 67. The PMO has asked you to generate some financial information to summarize the business benefits of your project. To best describe how much money you hope the project will return, you should show an estimate of:

1. Internal Rate of Return (IRR)
2. Return on Investment (ROI)
3. Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
4. Net Present Value (NPV)

Answer: B. Return on Investment (ROI) 

To best describe how much money you hope the project will return, you should show an estimate of Return on Investment (B). While internal rate of return (A), (C), and (D), are financial measurements, they are not the best options

Q 68. What are the five XP values?

1. Commitment, openness, focus, courage, and respect
2. Commitment, openness, simplicity, courage, and respect
3. Communication, feedback, simplicity, courage, and respect
4. Commitment, feedback, simplicity, courage, and respect

Answer: C. Communication, feedback, simplicity, courage, and respect 

The five XP values are communication, feedback, simplicity, courage, and respect.

Q 69. Signature presence is used in:

1. Coaching
2. Conflict resolutions
3. Team selection
4. Basic writing skills

Answer: A. Coaching 

Signature presence is used in coaching (A).

Q 70. Nathan, a new Agile practitioner, is at a planning event where the relative development effort of user stories of a large product backlog is to be estimated. The planning event is mostly conducted in silence and the team is to assign user stories to various T-shirt sizes (small, medium, large, extra-large). The planning event is efficient and the user stories are estimated quickly. What type of planning event is Nathan most likely attending?

1. Infinity estimating
2. T-shirt estimating
3. Affinity estimating
4. Relative estimating

Answer: C. Affinity estimating 

Assignment of user stories to various T-shirt sizes (small, medium, large, extra-large) is called Affinity estimating (C). It is a release estimating technique (D), while Infinity estimating (A) and T-shirt estimating (B) are made up terms.

Q 71. What is the difference between Crystal Yellow and Crystal Diamond?

1. Increased number of people involved
2. Increased scope involved
3. More costly and duration is increased
4. All of the above

Answer: A. Increased number of people involved 

The difference between Crystal Yellow and Crystal Diamond is the increased number of people involved (B), which is the best choice. However, often scope (B), cost and duration (C), and (D) will also be affected.

Q 72. It is possible that the newly discovered tasks can take long enough that they cannot be completed during the iteration. They may need to reduce the functionality of a story or drop one entirely. With whom should the team discuss the possible solutions in this situation?

1. Product owner
2. Scrum master
3. Upper management
4. Stakeholders

Answer: A. Product owner 

The product owner (A) is the sole decision maker. Scrum masters are process specialists not decision makers. Upper management (C) and stakeholders (D) should take their requirements to the product owner.

Q 73. Which content would you not expect to find in a business case?

1. Methods and Assumptions
2. Business Impacts
3. Sensitivity, Risks, and Contingencies
4. Implementation Strategies

Answer: D. Implementation Strategies 

The common content of a business case include Introduction, Methods, and Assumptions (A), Business Impacts (B), Sensitivity, Risks, and Contingencies (C), and Conclusions and Recommendations. However, no Implementation Strategies (D) are involved.

Q 74. Which of the following is not true regarding how burn-up charts that track total scope differ from burn-down charts?

1. Burn-up charts separate out the rate of progress from the scope fluctuations.
2. Burn-up charts and burn-down charts trend in opposite vertical directions.
3. Burn-up charts can be converted to cumulative flow diagrams by the addition of WIP.
4. Burn-down charts indicate whether the rate-of-effort changes are due to changes in progress rates or in scope.

Answer: D. Burn-down charts indicate whether the rate-of-effort changes are due to changes in progress rates or in scope. 

That burn-up charts separate out the rate of progress from the scope fluctuations (A) is true. Burn-up charts and burn-down charts trend in opposite vertical directions (B) is true, and burn-up charts can be converted to cumulative flow diagrams by the addition of WIP (C) is also true. However, burn-down charts indicate whether rate-of-effort changes are due to changes in progress rates or scope (D) is not correct.

Q 75. The Agile Manifesto value “customer collaboration over contract negotiation” means that:

1. Agile approaches encourage you not to focus too much on negotiating contracts, since most vendors are just out for themselves anyway.
2. Agile approaches focus on what we are trying to build with our vendors, rather than debating the details of contract terms.
3. Agile approaches prefer not to use contracts, unless absolutely necessary, because they hamper the ability to respond to change requests.
4. Agile approaches recommend that you only collaborate with vendors who are using Agile processes themselves.

Answer: B. Agile approaches focus on what we are trying to build with our vendors, rather than debating the details of contract terms. 

The Agile Manifesto value “customer collaboration over contract negotiation” means that Agile approaches focus on what we are trying to build with our vendors, rather than on debating the details of contract terms (B). Not to focus too much on negotiating contracts (A), not to use contracts (C), and only collaborating with vendors (D) are all wrong.

76.   What are the benefits of distributed teams?

1. Global markets
2. Global talent
3. Reduced costs
4. All of the above

Answer: D. All of the above 

The benefits of distributed teams are Global markets (A), Global talent (B), and Reduced costs (C). This makes all of the above (D) the best choice.

Q 77. Which of the following characteristics are all attributes of a good user story?

1. Designed, Documented, Delivered
2. Scoped, Estimated, Designed
3. Independent, Negotiable, Valuable
4. Small, Testable, Delivered

Answer: C. Independent, Negotiable, Valuable 

Option (C) Independent, Negotiable, Valuable is part of INVEST.

Q 78. In Agile approaches, negotiation is viewed as:

1. A zero-sum game
2. A winner-takes-all challenge
3. A foolproof win-win scenario
4. A healthy process of give-and-take

Answer: D. A healthy process of give-and-take 

In Agile approaches, negotiation is viewed as a healthy process of give-and-take. The other options, a zero-sum game (A), a winner-takes-all challenge (B), and a foolproof win-win scenario (C) are one-sided and could create conflicts.

Q 79. Which of the following best describes the functions of an Agile coach?

1. Interaction designer, teacher, manager, collaboration conductor
2. Facilitator, interaction designer, teacher, manager
3. Facilitator, teacher, conflict navigator, problem solver
4. Manager, teacher, conflict navigator, problem solver

Answer: C. Facilitator, teacher, conflict navigator, problem solver 

Facilitator, teacher, conflict navigator, problem solver (C) are all coaching roles.

Q 80. When information is shared between collocated team members unconsciously, it is known as:

1. Active listening
2. Chaordic communication
3. Osmotic communication
4. Entropic communication

Answer: C. Osmotic communication 

When information is shared between collocated team members unconsciously, it is known as Osmotic communication (C), while Chaordic communication (B) and Entropic communication (D) are made up. Active listening (A) is important for communication; however, it is not the best choice in this question.

Q 81. In Agile, planning should be at:

1. The level of features because customers get no value from activities
2. The level of features because features are not independent
3. The level of activities because activities are independent
4. The level of activities because customers get no value from features

Answer: A. The level of features because customers get no value from activities 

In Agile, planning should be at the level of features because customers get no value from activities (A).

Q 82. Which techniques can be used to identify risks?

1. Pre-mortem
2. Daily stand-ups
3. Decision tree analysis
4. Osmotic communication

Answer: A. Pre-mortem 

Pre-mortem (A) is a useful technique used to identify risk, which may be used during the daily stand-ups (B). Decision tree analysis (C) may be used for further risk assessment, while Osmotic communication (D) is not relevant here.

Q 83. Which of the following is not true about Agile contracts?

1. Time is fixed.
2. Cost is fixed.
3. Costs vary.
4. Scope varies.

Answer: C. Costs vary. 

Agile contracts have a fixed time (A) and cost (B), while scope varies (D). This makes (C) the right choice.

Q 84. The steps involved in Value Stream Analysis include:

1. Create a value stream map to document delays and waste time, such as meetings and coffee breaks.
2. Create a value stream map of the current process, identifying steps, queues, delays, and information flows.
3. Review the value stream map of the current process and compare it to the goals set forth in the project charter.
4. Review how to adjust the value stream charter to be more flexible.

Answer: B. Create a value stream map of the current process, identifying steps, queues, delays, and information flows. 

The steps involved in value stream analysis include: Create a value stream map of the current process, identifying steps, queues, delays, and information flows (B). Meetings and coffee breaks should not be documented (A). The goals are not set forth in the project charter (C) nor review how to adjust the value stream charter to be more flexible (D).

Q 85. Who are referred to as “Chickens” in Scrum?

1. The product owner, the Scrum master, and the team
2. Anyone except one of the three roles in Scrum (the team, the product owner, the Scrum master)
3. The customer
4. The team

Answer: B. Anyone except one of the three roles in Scrum (the team, the product owner, the Scrum master) 

Chickens are everyone except the three roles (B).

Q 86. Which of the following is a statement from the Agile Software Development Manifesto?

1. Individuals and tools over interactions and processes
2. Working software over comprehensive documentation
3. Customer collaboration and contract negotiation
4. Following a plan over responding to change

Answer: B Working software over comprehensive documentation 

Working software over comprehensive documentation is found in the Manifesto while the others are mixed up incorrectly.

Q 87. Which of the following responses is not an Agile Manifesto value or principle regarding communication?

1. Customer collaboration over contract negotiation
2. Delivering working software frequently
3. Individuals and interactions over processes and tools
4. Face-to-face communication whenever possible

Answer: B. Delivering working software frequently 

Delivering working software (B) frequently is not an Agile Manifesto value or principle regarding communication.

Q 88. The organizational benefits of Emotional Intelligence include:

1. More effective development of team working
2. Better communication skills
3. Higher salary
4. Fewer conflicts in the team

Answer: A. More effective development of team working 

The organizational benefits of Emotional Intelligence are more effective development of team working (A). It may help with the communication (B) and reduce the severity of the conflicts (D). However, there is no evidence of higher salaries (C).

Q 89. An example of high-bandwidth communication is:

1. A virtual product demonstration
2. Face-to-face communication
3. A voice over IP phone call
4. An email with a multimedia attachment

Answer: B. Face-to-face communication 

High-bandwidth communication is face-to-face communication (B).

Q 90. When we practice active listening, what are the levels through which our listening skills progress?

1. 1) Global listening, 2) Focused listening, 3) Intuitive listening
2. 1) Interested listening, 2) Focused listening, 3) Global listening
3. 1) Self-centered listening, 2) Focused listening, 3) Intuitive listening
4. 1) Internal listening, 2) Focused listening, 3) Global listening

Answer: D. 1) Internal listening, 2) Focused listening, 3) Global listening 

Intuitive listening (A), interested listening (B), and self-centered listening (C) are made up, while (D) is the correct list as: (1) Internal listening, (2) Focused listening, and (3) Global listening. 

Q 91. The values of the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct Honesty do not state:

1. We are truthful in our communications and in our communication.
2. We provide accurate information in a timely manner.
3. We are truthful in our communications and in our conduct.
4. We earnestly seek to understand the wrongdoing.

Answer: D. We earnestly seek to understand the wrongdoing. 

The values of the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct Honesty do state that we are truthful in our communications and in our communication (A), we provide accurate information in a timely manner (B), and we are truthful in our communications and in our conduct (C). However, it does not state that we earnestly seek to understand the wrongdoing (D), which is the correct answer in this not question.

Q 92. To ensure the success of our project, in what order should we execute the work, taking into account the necessary dependencies and risk-mitigation tasks?

1. The order specified by the project management office (PMO)
2. The order specified by the business representatives
3. The order specified by the project team
4. The order specified by the project architect

Answer: B. The order specified by the business representatives 

To ensure the success of our project, the order is specified by the business representatives (B). The PMO, team, and architect cannot make the decision; it has to be the product owner/business representatives who are responsible decision makers.

Q 93. Which of the following types of communication is the most effective?

1. Skype with video on
2. Formal report
3. Webcast
4. Face-to-face communication at a whiteboard

Answer: D. Face-to-face communication at a whiteboard 

Face-to-face communication at a whiteboard (D) is the most effective form of communication according to the research by Cockburn.

Q 94. Which of the following statements is correct about refactoring?

1. After refactoring, the software should be more efficient.
2. After refactoring, the software should be completed.
3. After refactoring, the software should be better organized.
4. After refactoring, the software should be more effective.

Answer: C. After refactoring, the software should be better organized. 

After refactoring, the code should be better organized (C).

Q 95. Calculate the Net Present Value of the following investment candidate. The initial investment cost is $2,000. The discount rate is 10%. Three yearly payments of $100 are expected. At the end of year 3, additional $2,500 is expected.

1. $127
2. $168
3. $244
4. $432

Answer: A. $127 

$127 Now PV = –$2,000. Year one ($100 /1.1 = $90.91). Year two ($100 /1.1 × 1.1 = $82.64). Year three ($100/1.1 × 1.1 × 1.1 = $75.13). Year three final payment $2,500/1.1 × 1.1 × 1.1 = $1,878.29. NPV = –$2,000 + $90.91 + $82.64 + $75.13 + $1,878.29 = $127.

Q 96. What is the best length of an iteration in Scrum?

1. 1 week
2. There is no ideal iteration length. It depends on the project and can vary.
3. 2 weeks
4. 1 month

Answer: B. There is no ideal iteration length. It depends on the project and can vary. 

There is no ideal iteration length. It depends on the project and can vary (B) by one or two weeks. (A) and (C) are often too short and stressful, while one month or four weeks is the option many teams choose (D). However, it is up to the team to decide.

Q 97. What factor should the team not consider during a self-assessment?

1. Releasing
2. Trust each other
3. What is our plan?
4. Next sprint

Answer: D. Next sprint 

Next sprint (D) is not considered during self-assessment.

Q 98. Your team is conducting a test as part of the team selection and the result is that the candidate is a so-called specialist. Which test are you using?

1. MBTI
2. Shu-Ha-Ri
3. Moneyball
4. Belbin

Answer: D. Belbin 

A specialist (D) is a role from Belbin.

Q 99. In Scrum, the definition of “done” is described by everyone except the:

1. Development team
2. Product owner
3. Scrum master
4. Process owner

Answer: D. Process owner 

In Scrum, the definition of “done” is created by the development team (A), the product owner (B), and the Scrum master (C)—not by the process owner (D).

Q 100. Choose the correct combination of XP practice names from the following options:

1. Test-driven design, refactoring, pair programming
2. Test-driven development, reforecasting, peer programming
3. Test-driven development, refactoring, pair programming
4. Test-driven design, refactoring, peer programming

Answer: C. Test-driven development, refactoring, pair programming 

Test-driven design (A), reforecasting (B), and peer programming (D) are made up, while test-driven development, refactoring, and pair programming (C) is correct.

Q 101. Involving the team in Planning and Estimating and providing early feedback on Delivery Velocity is BEST used to mitigate what kind of risk?

1. Schedule flaws
2. Requirements creep
3. Employee turnover
4. Poor productivity

Answer: A. Schedule flaws

Early involvement of the engineering team in planning. estimating and providing velocity feedback to executives serves the purpose of reducing Schedule Risk. 

Q 102. Which of the following is the BEST approach for estimation?

1. Expert Opinion
2. Analogy
3. Disaggregation
4. A combination of all of the above

Answer: D. A combination of all of the above

The best approach for estimation should be a combination of Expert opinion. Analogy and

Disaggregation.

Q 103. A scrum team’s velocity for sprints 1 through 6 is shown on the chart. None of the team members have taken vacations during Sprints 1 through 6 and none are planning to take a vacation during Sprint 7. Which user stories from the Product Backlog will the team commit to in Sprint 7? Product Backlog: User Story 1 is 3 story points. User Story 2 is 1 story point. User Story 3 is 3 story points. User Story 4 is 5 story points. User Story 5 is 8 story points. User Story 6 is 3 story points. User Story 7 is 1 story point. User Story 8 is 1 story point. User Story 9 is 5 story points. User Story 10 is 1 story point.

1. Stories 1 through 10
2. Stories 1, 2, 3,4, and 6
3. Stories 1,2, 3,4. 7, 8. and 10
4. Stories 1,2, 3. and 5

Answer: B. Stories 1, 2, 3,4, and 6

The average team velocity for sprints 1 through 6 is 15. so during sprint planning. the scrum team members are most likely to commit to stories 1. 2. 3. 4. and 6 which are equal to 15 story points. They would skip story 5. because otherwise they would over commit. Although stories 1. 2. 3 and 5 also average 15, the team should focus on completing higher priority User Stories.

Q 104. When forming an Agile project team it is BEST to use:

1. Generalized Specialists
2. Top management officials
3. Highly specialized developers
4. All of the above

Answer: A. Generalized Specialists

Keeping the team to a reasonable size means selecting “generalized specialists” who are willing to do additional work outside what has been traditionally expected of them given their job title. 

Q 105. What is the unit of measurement that is used to measure the size of a user story for an Agile project?

1. Function points
2. Story points
3. Work breakdown points
4. Velocity points

Answer: B. Story points

Story points are used as a measure for expressing the overall size of a user story.

Q 106. How is Agile planning different from the traditional approach to planning?

1. Agile planning is done only once
2. Agile planning is non iterative
3. Agile planning places emphasis on the plan
4. Agile planning places emphasis on planning and is iterative

Answer: D. Agile planning places emphasis on planning and is iterative

Agile planning is iterative and places emphasis on planning.

Q 107. When analyzing processes, what becomes increasingly significant for managers to understand in regards to individual skills?

1. A group understanding of processes allows teams to execute their jobs more effectively and efficiently: but it can never substitute skill
2. A process is more easily developed when the customer is more directly involved in its development
3. Skilled individuals are not necessarily required to be involved with analyzing processes
4. Skill sets are absolutely crucial in the planning and execution of specific processes; but not its analysis

Answer: A. A group understanding of processes allows teams to execute their jobs more effectively and efficiently: but it can never substitute skill

Fundamental skills must be present in a team to accomplish all tasks. Many managers make the mistake of assuming a firm understanding of certain processes can substitute skill in a group. 

Q 108. The process of testing Delivered or “done done” stories is known as:

1. Unit Testing
2. Integration Testing
3. Exploratory Testing
4. Release Testing

Answer: C. Exploratory Testing

The process of testing Delivered or “done done” stories is known as exploratory testing. Under this phase, an expert tester uses his intuition and experience to test already delivered stories. 

Q 109. Which of the following is NOT one of the five core risk areas common to all projects?

1. Specification Breakdown
2. Scope Creep
3. Strategic Alienation
4. Intrinsic Schedule Flaw

Answer: C. Strategic Alienation

The five identified core risk areas that are common to all projects are known as: Intrinsic

Schedule Flaw (estimates that are wrong and undoable from day one, often based on wishful thinking), Specification Breakdown (failure to achieve stakeholder consensus on what to build), Scope Creep (additional requirements that inflate the initially accepted set), Personnel Loss. and Productivity Variation (difference between assumed and actual performance).

Q 110. A Persona used within an Agile user story can be thought of as:

1. A person who will only use the application infrequently
2. A person who will influence early adopters of the application
3. A formally-assigned user-acceptance tester
4. An imaginary representation of a user role

Answer: D. An imaginary representation of a user role

A Persona is an imaginary representation of a user role

Q 111. An agile practitioner is explaining his team about the relationships between the development team and customer as well as and responsibilities of the development team and customer in agile project management. Which of the following statements is most appropriate with respect to the given?

1. The customer defines value and checks the user experience, not the development team
2. The development team sets the priority among the features, not the customer
3. The customer determines how to perform the work, not the development team
4. The development team determines which features should be developed first

Answer: A. The customer defines value and checks the user experience, not the development team.

In agile project management, values and user experience is defined and checked by the customer, not the development team. So, the option the customer defines value and checks the user experience, not the development team is correct.

Q 112. An experienced agile practitioner has been assigned to work on two different projects at a time. In a day, on a rough approximation, he is spending 50% of his time on each of the projects. Which of the following is the type of waste that will most likely occur in such an arrangement?

1. Defects
2. Task switching
3. Partially done work
4. Motion

Answer: B. Task switching

As the agile practitioner is working on two different projects and needs to switch between the projects, task switching wastage will definitely exist there.

Q 113. A customer, a tester, and a developer were having a conversation about using the best testing approach on their project when an agile practitioner overheard them. Which of the following approaches would an agile practitioner most likely recommend in this situation?

1. Using manual, rather than automated testing tools
2. Initiating testing later, rather than early, in the development cycle
3. Limiting the quality assurance activities to identify the defects
4. Developing code as per the results of acceptance tests

Answer: D. Developing code as per the results of acceptance tests

Developing code as per the results of acceptance tests helps in improving the quality due to the consideration of quality in the earlier phase of the development by the team.

Q 114. An agile team has been assigned to work on the development of a software product. The project leader is helping the team in prioritizing the requirements by using the dot voting technique. Which of the following is the most appropriate description of the dot voting?

1. Dot voting, also known as the 100-point method, enables customers to allocate dots to various features
2. Dot voting draws the features on a graph with axes as dots and classifies each feature by how customers will respond
3. Dot voting, also known as multi-voting, provides every attendant a fixed number of dots for voting
4. Dot voting uses a fixed number of votes to rank priorities from high to low in a simple scheme

Answer: C. Dot voting, also known as multi-voting, provides every attendant a fixed number of dots for voting 

In dot voting technique, attendants are instructed to use common dots to be put next to their choices. Dot voting, also known as multi-voting, is a scheme used for the features’ prioritization. So, the option Dot voting, also known as multi-voting, provides every attendant a fixed number of dots for voting is the most appropriate description of the dot voting.

Q 115. A product owner has set up a room with five laptops and invited four different end users to test the capabilities of a new system. The developers from the project team have been invited in the room to observe the users, take notes, and answer the basic questions. Which of the following agile techniques and tools has been described in this scenario?

1. Usability testing
2. Automated testing
3. Scripted testing
4. Exploratory testing

Answer: A. Usability testing 

Usability testing is a type of testing that involves end users to check their response to the system under realistic circumstances. As in the given scenario, end users are invited to test the capabilities of a new system and developers observe the users while they interact with the system, take notes, and answer the basic questions, scenario describes the usability testing.

Q 116. You are an agile practitioner working on the critical medical application development project. In your company, the crystal family of methods is used for such complex projects that involve multiple teams. Which of the following methodology would you recommend as an agile practitioner using the crystal grid?

1. A darker color and softer crystal methodology from the upper right corner
2. A darker color and harder crystal methodology from the upper right corner
3. A clearer color and harder crystal methodology from the upper left corner
4. A clearer color and softer crystal methodology from the upper left corner

Answer: B. A darker color and harder crystal methodology from the upper right corner

The project involves multiple teams i.e. team size is large, so darker color methodology will be used. Due to the higher criticality of the project, harder crystal methodology will be used. Also, higher criticality corresponds to the upper and right movement to the grid.

Q 117. Ryan is a scrum master handling the team that is working on an agile project. The team members complain that their work is being delayed as the new sponsor (who doesn’t know about the agile methodology and practices) keeps on asking them about the project details every time. What would you do in this situation as a scrum master?

1. Discuss with the product owner and request him to help in dealing with the new sponsor
2. Contact the sponsor and request him to bring all the questions to you (scrum master) only
3. Discuss with the team and fix one member as the spokesperson for the sponsor
4. Tell the team to take his (scrum master) permission before having any discussion with the sponsor

Answer: B. Contact the sponsor and request him to bring all the questions to you (scrum master) only

Q 118. Daily stand up meetings are very important for an agile team as it allows the team to communicate, collaborate, and make future work plans. Many new agile team members may need to understand the meaning of daily stand up meetings. Which is the following is the most important thing that an agile practitioner should keep in mind for an effective daily stand up meeting?

1. Every team member should take part in the daily stand up meeting; it will help to keep the meeting short
2. Daily stand up meeting helps to make sure that none of the team members have any doubt about the deliverables and the performance of the team is intact
3. Daily stand up meeting is a short meeting only for 15 minutes; no one can leave the meeting until the discussion is over
4. Daily stand up meeting should be well-structured and short

Answer: D. Daily stand up meeting should be well-structured and short

The daily standup meeting should be short, it is true. Also, it should be well-structured, such that the team members should be focused on answering the three questions. So, it’s the most important point that specifies the effective daily stand up meeting.

Q 119. Harold is a stakeholder in company A. He has recently learned that the team will use an agile framework in the current project. In a planning meeting, Harold tells the team members that they are not doing formal documentation in this project as they were doing in the previous projects. How will the team members react to his statement?

1. There is no documentation in the agile projects, they focus on the value-added delivery
2. The documentation is kept barely sufficient to fulfill regulatory requirements in agile methodology
3. In agile, the documentation is done for the clear work items only
4. Documentation is not created in agile methodology, but we used as much documentation possible to make you comfortable with the agile

Answer: B. In agile, documentation is kept small and barely sufficient to fulfill regulatory requirements in an agile environment.  Only the required time and effort should be applied to create documentation, neither less nor more.

Q 120. Gerard is a scrum master handling a scrum team working on the customer production system development.  The members of the team are distributed across the globe. During the iteration, the team found a critical defect so they decided to discuss the troubleshooting steps on the video conference. But suddenly the team members started blaming each other for the defect and the discussion turned into an argument. How would Gerrard handle this situation as a scrum master?

1. Request the team members to gather on site to resolve this type of critical defects
2. Ask the team to discuss and resolve the issue collaboratively in a professional manner
3. Tell the team to take a break and start the discussion after some time
4. Wait for the retrospective meeting and review the result of team discussion with the team

Answer: B. Ask the team to discuss and resolve the issue collaboratively in a professional manner