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Practice Test 6

Q 1. At the start of release planning, the team and product owner collaboratively explored the product owner’s conditions of satisfaction. Common factors in her conditions of satisfaction included scope, schedule, and budget. Why was quality not included in this list?

1. Quality is not considered as one of the common factors in product owner’s conditions of satisfaction
2. Quality is usually negotiated during iteration planning
3. Quality is usually negotiated between Scrum Master and Product Owner, not the Team
4. Agile teams typically prefer to treat quality as non-negotiable

Answer: D. Agile teams typically prefer to treat quality as non-negotiable

Agile treats quality as non-negotiable. On the contrary, standard project management considers quality as a negotiable factor and Project Manager is allowed to drop the quality when needed.

Q 2. It is possible that the newly discovered tasks will take long enough that they cannot be completed during the iteration. They may need to reduce the functionality of a story or drop one entirely. With whom should the team discuss the possible solutions in this situation?

1. Product Owner
2. Scrum Master
3. Upper Management
4. Stakeholders

Answer: A. Product Owner

It is possible that the newly discovered tasks will take long enough that they cannot be completed during the iteration. In that case, the team will need to discuss the situation with the Product Owner and see if there is still a way to meet the iteration goal; they may need

to reduce the functionality of a story or drop one entirely.

Q 3. What is the best length of an iteration in Scrum?

1. 1 week
2. There is no ideal iteration length. It depends on the project and can vary
3. 2 weeks
4. 1 month

Answer: B. There is no ideal iteration length. It depends on the project and can vary

There’s no one magic iteration duration that is right for all teams under all circumstances. The right length for a team on one project may not be the right length for that same team on a different project.

Q 4. Is it acceptable to extend the iteration for a few days in order to finish everything in the plan?

1. It Depends
2. It is not acceptable. Iteration is timeboxed
3. Yes, you can extend an iteration in rare situations
4. Acceptable if the Scrum Master took a decision

Answer: B. It is not acceptable. Iteration is timeboxed.

In your enthusiasm to demonstrate progress, be careful not to step over the line. Borderline behavior includes glossing over known defects in an iteration demo, taking credit for stories that are not 100 percent complete, and extending the iteration for a few days in order to finish everything in the plan.

Q 5. Who “owns” the iteration demo in Scrum?

1. Product Manager
2. The Scrum Master
3. The Product Owner
4. The Team

Answer: C. The Product Owner

The Product Owner conducts an Iteration Demo meeting.

Q 6. You are a Scrum Master in a Scrum team. The Product Owner doesn’t want to prioritize items in the Product Backlog. He says everything is important. What is the best you can do?

1. Let the Team work without prioritizing. Anyway, you will have to deliver all the features. It is not a critical problem
2. Be firm and insist on prioritizing
3. Prioritize the Product Backlog yourself
4. Let the Team decide which features are most important

Answer: B. Be firm and insist on prioritizing

Be firm. Yes, everything is important, but something has to come first and something will come last. Someone has to make the tough schedule decisions. That’s the Product Owner’s job.

Q 7. What is the longest iteration duration allowed in Scrum?

1. 2 Weeks
2. 3 Weeks
3. 2 Months
4. 1 Month

Answer: D. 1 Month.

Iteration is a one cycle within a project. In Scrum, this cycle is maximum 30 sequential calendar days, or a Sprint.

Q 8. Who are referred to as “Pigs” in Scrum?

1. The Product Owner, the Scrum Master and The Team
2. The Stakeholders
3. The Upper Management
4. The Customer

Answer: A. The Product Owner, the Scrum Master and The Team.

Someone occupying one of the three Scrum roles (Team, Product Owner, Scrum Master) who has made a commitment and has the authority to fulfill it.

Q 9. Who is referred to as “Chicken” in Scrum?

1. The Product Owner, The Scrum Master and The Team
2. Anyone except one of the three roles in Scrum (The Team, The Product Owner, The Scrum Master)
3. The Customer
4. The Team

Answer: B. Anyone except one of the three roles in Scrum (The Team, The Product Owner, The Scrum Master)

Someone occupying one of the three Scrum roles (The Team, The Product Owner, The Scrum Master) who has made a commitment and has the authority to fulfill it. Anyone else is called a “Chicken”.

Q 10. What of the following characterizes the Scrum incorrectly?

1. Scrum is a framework
2. Scrum is used for complex work in which it is impossible to predict everything that will occur
3. Scrum uses a predictive approach
4. Scrum is a very simple process for managing complex projects

Answer: C. Scrum uses a predictive approach

Scrum uses a fact-based decision making, a lot better than front-end-loaded predictive approaches.

Q 11. How many roles are included in Scrum?

1. 3
2. 2
3. 4
4. 1

Answer: A. 3.

There are only three Scrum roles: the Product Owner, the Team, and the Scrum Master.

Q 12. All management responsibilities in a project are divided among which roles in Scrum?

1. The Scrum Master and the Product Owner
2. The Team, the Scrum Master, the Product Owner
3. The Team, the Product Owner
4. The Team, the Scrum Master

Answer: B. The Team, the Scrum Master, the Product Owner

There are only three Scrum roles: the Product Owner, the Team, and the Scrum Master. All management responsibilities in a project are divided among these three roles.

Q 13. Who is responsible for representing the interests of everyone with a stake in the project and its resulting system in Scrum?

1. The Team
2. The Scrum Master
3. The Product Owner
4. The Scrum Master and the Product Owner

Answer: C. The Product Owner

The Product Owner is responsible for representing the interests of everyone with a stake in the project and its resulting system.

Q 14. Who provides ongoing funding of the project in Scrum?

1. The Project Manager
2. The Management
3. The Scrum Master
4. The Product Owner

Answer: C. The Product Owner. 

The Product Owner achieves initial and ongoing funding for the project by creating the project’s initial overall requirements, return on investment (ROI) objectives, and release plans.

Q 15. One of the following definitions describes the correct characteristics of the Scrum team:

1. Self-managing, Self-organizing, and Cross-functional
2. Self-directing, Self-organizing, and Cross-functional
3. Self-directing, Self-empowered, and Cross-functional
4. Self-monitoring, Self-managing, and Self-functioning

Answer: A. Self-managing, Self-organizing, and Cross-functional.

Teams are self-managing, self-organizing, and cross-functional, and they are responsible for figuring out how to turn Product Backlog into an increment of functionality within an iteration and managing their own work to do so.

Q 16. A Scrum Master is often compared to:

1. A ship dog
2. A Pig
3. A chicken
4. A camel

Answer: A. A ship dog. 

A Scrum Master is often compared to a sheepdog, responsible for keeping the flock together and the wolves away.

Q 17. Who is responsible for the ROI of the project in Scrum?

1. The Scrum Master
2. The Product Owner
3. The Team
4. The Project Manager

Answer: B. The Product Owner

The Product Owner is responsible for the ROI of the project, which usually means that the Product Owner chooses to develop product functionality that solves critical business problems.

Q 18. What technique does the Scrum use to require that every slice of functionality created by the developers be complete?

1. Sushi
2. Deming cycle
3. Frequent feedback loops
4. Sashimi

Answer: D. Sashimi 

Similar to the way every other slice tastes. Scrum uses the sashimi technique to require that every slice of functionality created by the developers be complete.

Q 19. Who has to manage the Scrum Team?

1. The Team
2. The Scrum Master
3. The Product Owner
4. The Management

Answer: A. The Team 

It is not the Scrum Master’s job to manage the Team. The Team has to learn to manage itself, to constantly adjust its methods in order to optimize its chances of success.

Q 20. Who is required to attend the Retrospective Meeting?

1. The Team, the Scrum Master, and the Product Owner
2. The Team and The Scrum Master
3. The Team
4. The Team and the Product Owner

Answer: B. The Team and The Scrum Master 

It is attended only by the Team, the Scrum Master, and the Product Owner. The Product Owner is optional.

Q 21. What is the most popular Agile methodology?

1. FDD
2. Waterfall
3. Scrum
4. XP

Answer: C. Scrum

Scrum is the most popular of the Agile methods. It is frequently used in conjunction with Extreme Programming (XP).

Q 22. What of the following is not true of the Self-organization in Scrum?

1. Self-organization is not an option in Scrum
2. Self-organized teams are highly disciplined
3. High trust and high commitment is an outcome of self-organizing teams
4. Self-organization implies a laissez-faire approach

Answer: D. Self-organization implies a laissez-faire approach 

Self-organization is not an option in Scrum; it is a core principle. Without this, high performing teams will not happen. Self-organization does not at all imply a laissez-faire approach; on the contrary, self-organized teams are highly disciplined. They are encouraged to take reasonable risks and to learn through failure and self-reflection. High trust and high commitment is an automatic outcome of truly self-organizing teams.

Q 23. Who gathers requirements in Scrum?

1. The Product Owner
2. The Scrum Master
3. The Team
4. The Product Manager

Answer: A. The Product Owner

The responsibilities of the Product Owner role are: Working on a shared vision, Gathering requirements, Managing and prioritizing the Product Backlog, Accepting the software at the end of each iteration, Managing the release plan, The profitability of the project (ROI).

Q 24. Whose responsibility is to socialize Scrum to the greater organization?

1. The Project Manager’s
2. The Scrum Master’s
3. The Product Owner’s
4. The Manager’s

Answer: B. The Scrum Master’s 

The responsibilities of the Scrum Master role are: Empowering and shepherding the team, Removing impediments, Keeping the process moving, Socializing Scrum to the greater organization.

Q 25. What metaphor does not express the role of the Scrum Master in Scrum?

1. Bulldozer
2. Ship dog
3. Chicken
4. Trainer

Answer: C. Chicken

Metaphor: The Scrum Master is a facilitator, coach, mentor and bulldozer! A Scrum Master is often compared to a sheepdog, responsible for keeping the flock together and the wolves away. Chicken refers to those outside the three Scrum roles.

Q 26. What is the leading indicator of whether the Scrum Team will meet its commitment at the end of the sprint?

1. The Sprint Backlog
2. The Sprint Burndown
3. The Scrum Board
4. The Team’s commitment

Answer: B. The Sprint Burndown 

The sprint burndown chart is designed to help the team monitor its progress and be a leading indicator of whether it will meet its commitment at the end of the sprint. The classic format requires teams to estimate the duration of each task in hours and on a daily basis to chart the total remaining hours for all uncompleted tasks.

Q 27. What is the best time to introduce or take away team members in a Scrum team?

1. When needed
2. Between releases
3. Before project starts
4. Between sprints

Answer: D. Between sprints

It’s important to keep the configuration of the team as stable as possible, and introduce or take away team members between sprints. Remember the rule: The people who made the commitment deliver the commitment.

Q 28. There is a memory-jogger describing the right qualities of the successful Product Owner. It is:

1. DEEP
2. CRACK
3. INVEST
4. CRUEL

Answer: B. CRACK. 

An effective product owner is Committed, Responsible, Authorized, Collaborative, and Knowledgeable (CRACK).

Q 29. You are a Scrum Master of the Scrum Team. Back after the holidays, you find that your team is divided into 2 groups, which fiercely argue over whether to use the new framework or not. None of the group wants to give up and defends their point of view. What level of conflict are you observing as a Scrum Master?

1. Level 5
2. Level 3
3. Level 1
4. Level 4

Answer: B. Level 3.

At level 3, the aim is to win. A compounding effect occurs as prior conflicts and problems remain unresolved. Often, multiple issues cluster into larger issues or create a “cause.” Factions emerge in this fertile ground from which misunderstandings and power politics arise.

Q 30. Who ensures that work is aligned with leadership’s direction and Product Vision?

1. The Product Owner
2. The Scrum Master
3. The Team
4. An Agile Coach

Answer: A. The Product Owner

Product owner ensures work is aligned with leadership’s direction and product vision.

Q 31. What Scrum event can be considered an analogue of traditional management “status meeting”?

1. Review Meeting
2. Stand-Up meeting
3. Retrospective Meeting
4. Planning Meeting

Answer: A. Review Meeting

Review Meetings are events held mainly as a traditional kind of gathering ie.. analogue status meeting.

Q 32. The Team owns which kind of Scrum plan?

1. Roadmap Plan
2. Release Plan
3. Iteration Plan
4. Product Vision

Answer: C. Iteration Plan

The Team owns the iteration plan only. Roadmap and Release plans are owned by the Product Owner.

Q 33. Who is(are) the creator(s) of Scrum?

1. Ken Schwaber
2. Jeff Sutherland
3. Ken Schwaber and Jeff Sutherland
4. Alistair Cockburn

Answer: C. Ken Schwaber and Jeff Sutherland

Scrum was developed and sustained by Ken Schwaber and Jeff Sutherland.

Q 34. Tom presented a new map to the Scrum Team. On the vertical axis he draws the probability of a given risk occurring. On the horizontal axis he draws the impact that the risk will have on the project or program should it materialize. What map did Tom present to his team?

1. Risk burndown
2. Story Map
3. Risk Map
4. Value stream map

Answer: C. Risk Map 

One of the best ways to visually display risks in a succinct manner is to use a Risk Map. On the vertical axis you have the probability of a given risk occurring, that is, the likelihood that the risk will materialize and become an Issue. On the horizontal axis we have the impact that the risk will have on the project or program should it materialize.

Q 35. Who manages the budget in Scrum?

1. Top Management
2. Scrum Master
3. Product Owner
4. Project Manager

Answer: C. Product Owner

The product owner leads the development effort to create a product that generates the desired benefits. This often includes creating the product vision; grooming the product backlog; planning the release; involving customers, users, and other stakeholders; managing the budget; preparing the product launch; attending the Scrum meetings; and collaborating with the team.

Q 36. Who is responsible for communicating progress, and managing the stakeholders in Scrum?

1. Both Scrum Master and Product Owner
2. Scrum Master
3. Team
4. Product Owner

Answer: D. Product Owner

The product owner is responsible for managing the release scope and date, managing the budget, communicating progress, and managing the stakeholders.

Q 37. You were assigned as a Proxy Product Owner in a Scrum Team. What less likely will you expect to see as the Project goes on?

1. Increase in conflicts and miscommunication
2. Slowdown in decision making
3. Decrease in productivity and morale
4. Increase in productivity and morale

Answer: D. Increase in productivity and morale

The actual product owner ultimately decides about product backlog prioritization, release planning, and whether to accept or reject work results. The sequences of having a proxy Product Owner may include: an increase in conflicts and communication, a slowdown in decision making, and a decrease in productivity and morale.

Q 38. Scrum mandates the backlog items to be described as:

1. User Stories
2. User Cases
3. Test-cases
4. Scrum does not mandate how product backlog items should be described

Answer: D. Scrum does not mandate how product backlog items should be described

Scrum does not mandate how product backlog items should be described, but many Scrum teams prefer to work with user stories. As its name suggests, a user story tells a story about a customer or user employing the product. It contains a name, a brief narrative, and acceptance criteria, conditions that must hold true for the story to be complete.

Q 39. What is the best approach in handling the Product Backlog if you are working on the project with multiple Scrum teams?

1. Create component-specific Product Backlogs for each team
2. Employ one Product Backlog, extend the grooming horizon, and consider providing team-specific views into the backlog
3. Prefer component teams to feature teams and empty separate Product Backlog for each team
4. There is no best approach, it is possible to go with any of them

Answer: B. Employ one Product Backlog, extend the grooming horizon, and consider providing team-specific views into the backlog

Whenever you work on a large Scrum project, ensure that there is one product backlog that contains the work necessary to bring the product to life. Avoid team- or component-specific backlogs that translate product requirements into subsystem or component requirements. Employ one product backlog, extend the grooming horizon, and consider providing team-specific views into the backlog.

Q 40. What is true regarding Grooming Horizon on large Scrum Projects?

1. Grooming horizon increases
2. Grooming horizon decreases
3. Grooming horizon doesn’t change
4. No Grooming is performed on large Scrum projects

Answer: A. Grooming horizon increases

Product backlog items are still decomposed and refined just in time on large Scrum projects. But the grooming horizon changes. Rather than focusing on the subsequent sprint, large projects look ahead to the next two to three sprints when preparing the product backlog

Q 41. Are the Teams required to have a release plan in Scrum?

1. Yes, they are required
2. It depends
3. The question is incorrect
4. No, they are not required

Answer: D. No, they are not required

Teams are not required to have a release plan in Scrum, but they certainly have to plan the release.

Q 42. What is the main purpose of the Burndown Chart?

1. Inspect team’s progress on a daily basis and adapt its work accordingly
2. Use as report in status meetings
3. Use as a document for senior management
4. Inspect team’s progress towards a release

Answer: A. Inspect team’s progress on a daily basis and adapt its work accordingly

The Burndown Chart’s primary purpose is to help the team inspect its progress on a daily basis and adapt its work accordingly. It is not a status report. Using the sprint burndown as a reporting tool turns it into a control mechanism.

Q 43. Once an organization has selected a project or a contract is signed to perform a project, the project charter must be created. It is signed by the:

1. The Product Owner
2. The Project Manager
3. The Senior Management
4. The Scrum Master

Answer: C. The Senior Management 

It is signed by the performing organization’s senior management.

Q 44.What measure will you most likely use for calculating the velocity of the Team?

1. Ideal Hours
2. Story Points
3. Elapsed Hours
4. Man-hours

Answer: B. Story Points

Story Points are used to measure for the Team velocity calculation.

Q 45. The minimum plan necessary to start a Scrum project consists of:

1. A Release Plan and a Product Backlog
2. A Vision and a Product Backlog
3. A Team and a Product Backlog
4. A Release Plan and a Sprint Plan

Answer: B. A Vision and a Product Backlog  

The minimum plan necessary to start a Scrum project consists of a Vision and a Product Backlog. The vision describes why the project is being undertaken and what the desired end state is.

Q 46. What of the following is required to be used in Scrum:

1. User Stories
2. Features
3. Use Cases
4. None of the above is required

Answer: D. None of the above is required 

User Stories, Features, Use Cases can be successfully used in Scrum, but it’s not required. This question refers to the best practices and core of the Scrum that can be found in the Scrum Guide.

Q 47. What Scrum meeting is strongly aligned with the Kaizen?

1. Retrospective Meeting
2. Planning Meeting
3. Review Meeting
4. Grooming

Answer: A. Retrospective Meeting

Kaizen is strongly aligned with Agile in the way it encourages changes from the workers rather than asking management what should be changed. Therefore, it’s strongly aligned with Retrospective Meeting in Scrum.

Q 48. The Scrum team has just performed a stakeholder analysis. Where most likely would it save the information gathered?

1. In a stakeholder register
2. In an impediment backlog
3. In an information radiator
4. In a backlog

Answer: A. In a stakeholder register

One of the activities that helps is a process known as stakeholder analysis. When performing stakeholder analysis, the stakeholders are identified, and their interest in the project is understood. All of this information is captured in a stakeholder register, which is a simple artifact.

Q 49. Who is eligible to initiate a cancellation of the Sprint?

1. The Development Team
2. The Scrum Master
3. The Stakeholders
4. All answers are correct

Answer: D. All answers are correct.

A Sprint can be cancelled before the Sprint time-box is over. Only the Product Owner has the authority to cancel the Sprint, although he or she may do so under influence from the stakeholders, the Development Team, or the Scrum Master.

Q 50. Which of the following BEST describes ROTI?

1. Measure of product backlogs remaining
2. Measure of quality of features delivered in an iteration
3. Measure of required effort to deliver in an iteration
4. Measure of effectiveness of the retrospective meeting

Answer: D. Measure of effectiveness of the retrospective meeting

Return on Time Invested (ROTI) is used to measure the effectiveness of the retrospective meetings from the team members’ perspective.

Q 51. Technical debt is the gap between a product’s actual cost of change (CoC) and its optimal CoC. Managing technical debt helps ensure reliable delivery today and ready adaptation to tomorrow’s customer needs. When can Technical Debt occur?

1. During Initial Development
2. Ongoing Maintenance
3. During enhancement
4. During all the above mentioned times

Answer: D. During all the above mentioned times

Technical debt can arise during initial development, ongoing maintenance (keeping a product at its original state), or enhancement (adding functionality).

Q 52. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Agile project manager?

1. Manages daily tasks of the team members
2. Assumes different leadership styles for different stages of team formation
3. Allows team to self-manage
4. Facilitates collaboration

Answer: A. Manages daily tasks of the team members

Agile Project Manager does not manage the daily tasks of team members as teams in Agile are self organizing.

Q 53. For a Retrospective meeting, the seating arrangement should be such that there is enough space for people to move comfortably. Which of the following is a preferable seating arrangement for a retrospective meeting?

1. Circle or semicircle of chairs
2. Theatre style arrangement
3. Tables arranged in U-shape
4. Meeting Room

Answer A. Circle or semicircle of chairs.

Circle or semicircle of chairs encourages participation because people can see each other. Classroom or theater-style arrangements stifle participation. Staring at the back of someone else’s head isn’t conducive to conversation. Tables can be a physical barrier that becomes a psychological barrier. Avoid rooms with an immovable conference table in the middle. That big ol’ table will inhibit creative collaboration. This isn’t a board meeting, after all. Tables arranged in a U-shape with a big gulf in the middle create distance and make it hard to move around.

Q 54. If we plan to work in two-week iterations with thirteen iterations during the project and the team’s velocity will be twenty story points or ideal days per iterations, what will the size of the total project in story points be?

1. 13
2. 20
3. 260
4. 200

Answer C. 260.

The size of the total project will be 13 x 20 = 260 story points

Q 55. What does the acronym DRY stand for?

1. Don’t Repeat Yourself
2. Don’t Reject Yourself
3. Do Repeat Yourself
4. None of the above

Answer A. Don’t Repeat Yourself

This clever name for a well-known principle comes from Dave Thomas and Andy Hunt. Don’t Repeat Yourself is more than just avoiding cut-and-paste coding. Eliminating duplication decreases the time required to make changes. You need only change one part of the code. It also decreases the risk of introducing a defect by making a necessary change in one place but not in another.

Q 56. Which of the following techniques of Scrum requires that every slice of functionality created by the developers be complete?

1. Team Collaboration
2. Sashimi
3. Scrum tool
4. Ability

Answer B. Sashimi 

Scrum uses the sashimi technique to require that every slice of functionality created by the developers be complete. All of the requirements gathering and analysis, design work, coding, testing, and documentation that constitute a complete product are required to be completed in every Sprint and demonstrated in the Sprint increment of functionality. Sprints are kept short enough that the stakeholders don’t lose interest in the project before the Sprints are completed. And stakeholders can see that they have an opportunity to redirect the project at the start of every Sprint to optimize the value they derive from the project. At the end of every Sprint, stakeholders see new functionality. Models, requirements, and internal artefacts might be of use to the developers, but they are never shown to the stakeholders.

Q 57. What is MOST true about Participatory Decision Making?

1. It is a technique that involves all the affected parties
2. It is just a meeting with no outcomes
3. It only involves the customer and the Product Manager
4. It is a technique based on the wishes of the Scrum Master

Answer A. It is a technique that involves all the affected parties

It is a technique that involves all the affected parties

Q 58. Team 1 has been asked to complete work on Item 10 story and deliver it to Team 2 so that they can initiate work on Item 12 story, which is dependent on completion of Item 10 story. The leader of Team 1 decides to insert a buffer that protects the start date on Item 12 story against delays in the completion of Item 10 story. This buffer is known as,

1. Feeding Buffer
2. Iteration Buffer
3. Story Buffer
4. Release Buffer

Answer: A. Feeding Buffer

The Feeding buffer protects the start date on Item 12 story against delays in the completion of Item 10 story.

Q 59. Sometimes stories are too small. A good approach for tiny stories, common among Extreme Programming teams, is to combine them into larger stories that represent from about a half-day to several days of work. The combined story is given a name and is then scheduled and worked on just like any other story. Which of the following are NOT examples of small stories?

1. Bug Reports
2. Bugs
3. User Interface Changes
4. A & C

Answer: B. Bugs. 

A story that is too small is typically one that the developer says she doesn’t want to write down or estimate because doing that may take longer than making the change. Bug reports and user interface changes are common examples of stories that are often too small.

Q 60. Which of the following BEST describes the Task Board?

1. The task board is always a white board
2. It is a great tool to show the project trend
3. It serves the dual purpose of giving the team a convenient mechanism for organizing their work and a way of seeing at a glance how much work is left.
4. Task Boards plot the Velocity

Answer: C. It serves the dual purpose of giving the team a convenient mechanism for organizing their work and a way of seeing at a glance how much work is left.

The Task Board serves the dual purpose of giving the team a convenient mechanism for organizing their work and a way of seeing at a glance how much work is left. It may not always be a white board, it can be a cork board or cardboard too.

Q 61. Wideband Delphi is a repeatable process that can be used :

1. To generate estimate
2. To create a story
3. For implementation purpose
4. To motivate the team

Answer: A. To generate estimate

Wideband Delphi is a technique that is used to generate estimation.

Q 62. Which of the following is NOT an attribute of a Good Story?

1. Testable
2. Large
3. Independent
4. Negotiable

Answer: B. Large.

A good story has six attributes – Independent, Negotiable, Valuable to users or customers, Estimable, Small and Testable

Q 63. During which project management phase are the product stories delivered?

1. Envision
2. Speculate
3. Explore
4. Adapt

Answer: B. Speculate.

During the Speculate phase, the product stories are delivered. This phase involves planning and delivering tested stories in a short iteration, constantly seeking to reduce the risk and uncertainty of the project.

Q 64. In the Agile Team Stages of Shu Ha Ri, what does ‘Ha’ stand for?

1. Break the rule
2. Follow the rule
3. Be the rule
4. None of the above

Answer: A. Break the rule

One good model for mastering anything (if that’s possible) comes from martial arts. A martial arts student progresses through three stages of proficiency called Shu Ha Ri. Shu: Follow the rule. Ha: Break the rule. Ri: Be the rule.

Q 65. What does ‘R’ stand for in ARCS, a criteria for evaluating Instructional designs by J.M. Keller?

1. Relevance
2. Repeatable
3. Recording
4. Right

Answer A. Relevance

J. M. Keller, an expert in motivation and learning, developed criteria for evaluating instructional designs. The criteria are Attention, Relevance, Confidence/Competence, Satisfaction—ARCS for short. Choose activities that help people stay engaged so they don’t drift off (Attention) and that are relevant to the goal (Relevance). You want activities that people can accomplish successfully (Confident/Competence). Finally, make sure activities fit into the overall design so people think the retrospective is a good use of their time (Satisfaction).

Q 66. As per the Kano Model of customer satisfaction, which features are MOST important for the product to be successful?

1. Exciters
2. Linear Features
3. Delighters
4. Threshold

Answer: D. Threshold.

Threshold features are those that must be present in the product for it to be successful. They are often referred to as must-have features.

Q 67. Which of the following defines the splitting of a story or a feature into smaller, easier-to-estimate pieces?

1. Decomposition
2. Disaggregation
3. Theme
4. Epic

Answer B. Disaggregation 

Disaggregation refers to splitting a story or feature into smaller, easier-to-estimate pieces. If most of the user stories to be included in a project are in the range of 2-5 days to develop, it will be very difficult to estimate a single story that may be 100 days.

Q 68. Which of the following is NOT true about Retrospective?

1. It helps decide how team will work in the future
2. It helps to reflect and learn from the past
3. It allows the team to own and drive their development process
4. It decides who will work on the next project

Answer D. It decides who will work on the next project

Retrospective is a meeting where a team looks back on a past period of work so that they can learn from their experience and apply this learning to future projects.

Q 69. Affinity Estimating is a technique many teams use to quickly and easily estimate a large number of user stories. What should be the minimum size for the items in the Product Backlog?

1. 20
2. 40
3. 8
4. 5

Answer A. 20. 

The Affinity Estimating exercise is best conducted on Product Backlogs larger than 20 items. It is best when you have at least 40 items which allows for groupings to easily become apparent.

Q 70. Which of the following is NOT a principle from the Agile Manifesto?

1. Our highest priority is to satisfy the customer through early and continuous delivery of valuable software.
2. Business people and developers must work together daily throughout the project.
3. Continuous attention to technical excellence and good design does not enhance agility.
4. Working software is the primary measure of progress.

Answer: C. Continuous attention to technical excellence and good design does not enhance agility. 

Continuous attention to technical excellence and good design enhances agility.

Q 71. Which of the following will NOT assist in Critical Problem solving during the project?

1. Ask probing questions
2. Use Active Listening
3. Use Reflective Listening
4. Injecting ideas

Answer: D. Injecting ideas

During critical problem solving, you can ask probing questions, use active and reflective listening, Lead to an answer but one should avoid injecting their own ideas.

Q 72. What is the successful response option at Conflict Level 1 : Problem to Solve ?

1. Collaboration
2. Consensus
3. Safety
4. A&B

Answer: D. A&B. 

Successful response options at Level 1 are, Collaboration- Seeking a win-win situation. Consensus- Learning where every team member’s head is with regard to the issue and, in time, arriving at a decision everyone can back.

Q 73. John and Joseph are working in the same room. John is programming and Joseph is having some discussion with Kim. John gets to hear their conversation and gets enough information to know that Joseph has talked about some idea with Kim. What kind of communication is this referred to as?

1. Push Communication
2. Osmotic Communication
3. Pull Communication
4. Active Listening

Answer B. Osmotic Communication. 

While writing, reading, typing, or talking, we pick up traces of the ongoing sounds around us, using some background listening mode, even though we are not consciously paying attention. If someone says something interesting, we may perk up and join the conversation. Otherwise, the sound goes through some background processing, either just above or just below our conscious level. In some cases, we register enough about the conversation to be able to develop what we need directly from memory. Otherwise, we may recall a phrase that was spoken, or perhaps only that a particular person was discussing a particular topic. In any case, we can ask about it. This taking in information without directly paying attention to it is like the process of osmosis, in which one substance seeps from one system, through a separator, into another. Osmotic communication further lowers the cost of idea transfer.

Q 74. At a Retrospective meeting, a few issues are highlighted by the team. Who is responsible for solving these issues?

1. The Scrum Master
2. Product Owner
3. Stakeholders
4. Team

Answer D. Team 

Agile teams are self organizing and can find solutions to their problems with ease.

Q 75. A methodology that is based on solutions or sequences of steps that is known to work for the discipline is known as,

1. Normative
2. Rational
3. Heuristic
4. Participative

Answer A. Normative

Normative methodologies are based on solutions or sequences of steps known to work for the discipline. Electrical and other building codes in house wiring are examples. In software development, one would include state diagram verification in this category.

Q 76. Having problems does not indicate a problem in itself, so welcome problems because they bring with them the chance for the team to overcome, grow, and become stronger together.” As an Agile Coach, which are the multiple perspectives to analyse to detect the symptoms for the problem?

1. Process Level
2. Quality and Performance Level
3. Team dynamics dimension
4. All of the above

Answer D. All of the above.

The multiple perspectives to analyze are , ? The process level: How are we doing with agile? ? The quality and performance angle: How can the team produce better? ? The team dynamics dimension: How can the team become a better team?

Q 77. According to DeMarco, Fragmented knowledge workers may look busy but a lot of their business is just thrashing. The minimum cost penalty is :

1. 15%
2. 10%
3. 5%
4. 25%

Answer A. 15%

The minimum cost penalty is 15%.

Q 78. When can a plan be changed in Agile Management?

1. At the end of the Iteration
2. When we have learned something new
3. At the Daily Meeting
4. You cannot change once the plan is prepared

Answer B. When we have learned something new 

In Agile, you can change the plan when something new is learned or when it is known that a mistake is to be avoided

Q 79. For projects of similar size and type, projects that have a cumulative defect removal rate at the nodal point, have the shortest schedules, have the lowest quantity of effort in terms of person-months, and have the highest levels of user satisfaction after release. What is this nodal point?

1. 15%
2. 95%
3. 35%
4. 50%

Answer: B. 95%.

Capers Jones’ widely heralded book on software measurement concluded that “a cumulative defect removal rate of 95% on a project appears to be a nodal point where several other benefits accrue”. For projects of similar size and type, these projects have the shortest schedules, have the lowest quantity of effort in terms of person-months, and have the highest levels of user satisfaction after release.

Q 80. What do you mean by Throughput?

1. Is the amount of production over time
2. Is the number of features the team can develop in a particular amount of time.
3. Is the number of features released during a Release
4. Is the number of defects rectified during a Release

Answer B. Is the number of features the team can develop in a particular amount of time.

Throughput is the number of features the team can develop in a particular amount of time.

Q 81. Which of the following documents defines the functional and non-functional requirements that the system should meet to deliver the vision, prioritized and estimated?

1. Prioritized Sprint
2. Vision Box
3. Product Backlog
4. Sprint Review Meet

Answer C. Product Backlog 

The Product Backlog defines the functional and nonfunctional requirements that the system should meet to deliver the vision, prioritized and estimated.

Q 82. Which of the following charts shows the total number of story points completed through the end of each iteration?

1. Iteration burndown chart
2. Cumulative story point burndown chart
3. Daily Burndown chart
4. Burn up chart

Answer B. Cumulative story point burndown chart.

A cumulative story point chart is useful because it shows the total number of story points completed through the end of each iteration.

Q 83. Agile Teams use Planning Poker for estimation. Which of the following is NOT true about Planning Poker?

1. It combines expert opinion, analogy, and disaggregation into an enjoyable approach to estimating that results in quick but reliable estimates.
2. Participants include all of the developers on the team
3. The team for Planning Poker should not exceed more than 10 participants
4. The highest estimate is considered the final estimate

Answer D. The highest estimate is considered the final estimate 

If estimates differ, the high and low estimators explain their estimates.

Q 84. The retrospective meeting on previous iteration should last not more than ?

1. 30 minutes
2. 60 minutes
3. 10 minutes
4. 5 minutes

Answer B. 60 minutes.

The retrospective meeting on the previous iteration should be maximum of one hour.

Q 85. Spike solutions are small standalone programs that demonstrate what you’ve learned. Which of the following types of spike will you use if you need to test an approach to your production code?

1. Development Spike
2. Design Spike
3. Scheduling Spikes
4. Iteration Spikes

Answer: B. Design Spike 

If you need to test an approach to your production code, Perhaps you want to see how a design possibility will work in practice, or you need to see how a persistence framework will work on your production code.

Q 86. DSDM uses MoSCoW technique to create the prioritized requirements list. In MoSCoW technique, ‘M’ stands for :

1. Medium
2. Must Have
3. Must Not Have
4. Minimum Marketable Features

Answer: B. Must Have 

DSDM popularized the MoSCoW prioritisation scheme, deriving its name from the first letters of its labels of “Must…”, “Should…”, “Could…”, “Would like to have, but not this time.” Under MoSCoW, we have some easier-to-defend categories. “Must-have” requirements or features are fundamental to the system; without them, the system does not work or has no value. “Should have” are important–by definition, we should have them for the system to work correctly; if they are not there, then the work-around will likely be costly or cumbersome. “Could have’s” are useful net additions that add tangible value, and “Would like’s” are the “also-ran” requests that are duly noted–but unlikely to make the cut.

Q 87. Which are the three coach styles?

1. Teaching, Coaching and Advising
2. Coaching, Mentoring and Advising
3. Coaching, Informator, Advising
4. Mentoring, Teaching and Advising

Answer A. Teaching, Coaching and Advising

The three coach styles are Teaching, Coaching, and Advising.

Q 88. One of your stakeholders is interested in viewing the project progress but he is not interested in details. Which of the following reports can you share with this stakeholder?

1. Weekly demo
2. Vision Statement
3. Release plan
4. Burn up chart

Answer: D. Burn up chart.

Burn-up chart is an excellent way to get a bird’s-eye view of the project. It shows progress and predicts a completion date. Most teams produce a burn-up chart when they update their release plan.

Q 89. Who specifies Acceptance Tests in an Agile Project?

1. Customer
2. Programmer
3. Developer
4. Product Manager

Answer: A. Customer 

Because the software is being written to fulfil a vision held by the customer, the acceptance tests need to be specified by the customer. The customer can work with a programmer or tester to actually create the tests, but minimally the customer needs to specify the tests that will be used to know when a story has been correctly developed

Q 90. One of your stakeholders wants more detail than the vision statement provides, but not the overwhelming detail of the release and iteration plans. Which of the following progress reports will you share with this stakeholder?

1. Roadmap
2. Status email
3. Iteration plan
4. Productivity chart

Answer: A. Roadmap.

Some stakeholders may want more detail than the vision statement provides, but not the overwhelming detail of the release and iteration plans. For these stakeholders, consider maintaining a document or slide deck that summarizes planned releases and the significant features in each one.

Q 91. Which of the following defines Elapsed Time?

1. Is the same as Ideal Time
2. Is the amount of time that passes on a clock or perhaps a calendar
3. Is the amount of time that something takes when stripped of all peripheral activities
4. Is the amount of time the team spent on the iteration

Answer: B. Is the amount of time that passes on a clock or perhaps a calendar

Elapsed Time Is the amount of time that passes on a clock or perhaps a calendar.

Q 92. Feature X has a value of 12 and the total value of all features is 35. If the feature is estimated to cost 56%, what is the priority of this feature using relative weighting?

1. 0.34
2. 0.61
3. 1.64
4. 0.625

Answer: B. 0.61.

The priority of the feature is determined by dividing the priority %by the cost %. Hence the answer = (12/35)/(0.56) = 0.61.

Q 93. Name the XP technique where two people pair; one person who codes is the driver and the other person who thinks is the Navigator?

1. Pair Programming
2. Planning Poker
3. Planning Technique
4. Coding Technique

Answer: A. Pair Programming

Pair Programming — When you pair, one person codes—the driver. The other person is the navigator, whose job is to think.

Q 94. Decision Framing focuses majorly on:

1. Identifying types of decisions that need to be made
2. Stakeholders involved in the decision making process
3. Delegating decision making process
4. Manager taking the decision

Answer is B. Stakeholders involved in the decision making process

Decision framing focuses on who gets involved in the decision process. Managers who make decisions without input from subordinates and peers make poor decisions. Engineers who make decisions without input from managers and peers make poor decisions. Who makes the decision is less important than getting the right people involved in the decision process.

Q 95. Which of the following is NOT true about the Iteration Demos?

1. It’s a concrete demonstration of the team’s progress
2. The demos help the team be honest about its progress.
3. Iteration demos are a closed affair and are shown only to a selected set of stakeholders
4. The demo is an opportunity to solicit regular feedback from the customers

Answer: C. Iteration demos are a closed affair and are shown only to a selected set of stakeholders

Iteration demos are open to all stakeholders, and some companies even invite external customers to attend.

Q 96. Which of the following is a STORY?

1. “Full-screen demo option for job fair”
2. “Automate integration build”
3. “Deploy to staging server outside the firewall”
4. “Improve performance”

Answer: A. “Full-screen demo option for job fair”

“Automate integration build” does not represent customer value, hence not a story. “Deploy to staging server outside the firewall” describes implementation details rather than an end result, and it doesn’t use customer terminology, hence not a story. “Improve performance” has no clear completion criteria, hence not a story.

Q 97. Which of the following factors will not assist in improving the project velocity?

1. Pay down Technical Debt
2. Offload Programmer duties
3. Reduce customer involvement
4. Provide needed resources

Answer: C. Reduce customer involvement 

Customer Involvement should be improved to improve the project velocity.

Q 98. Which of the following techniques would you use to detect problems within a process?

1. Sprints
2. Burn Up charts
3. Burn Down charts
4. Health checks

Answer: D. Health checks.

Health checks, often in the form of a questionnaire, lists required elements and qualities that jog our minds to help us remember the basic ingredients of agile. They help us determine how well the team is adhering to Agile methods.

Q 99. In a complete Product Planning structure, which of the following denotes the product planning structure with a medium range timeframe, story level of detail and capability commitment?

1. Release
2. Story
3. Roadmap
4. Wave

Answer: D. Wave.

Wave is the Product Planning structure with Medium range time frame (3 months) with Story level capability and Capability commitment.

Q 100. What are the four key terms by which the iterative part of Agile is defined?

1. Timeboxed, releasable, agility and incremental
2. Iterative, feature-based, timeboxed, and incremental
3. Feature-based, timeboxed, agility and incremental
4. None of the above

Answer: B. Iterative, feature-based, timeboxed, and incremental 

Iterative development means that we build a partial version of a product and then expand that version through successive short time periods of development followed by reviews and adaptations. Feature-based delivery means that the engineering team builds features of the final product or, particularly with industrial products, at least a close representation of the final product (such as a simulation model). Iterations are constrained to produce a result within a certain period of time—a timebox (as short as 1–4 weeks for software). Timeboxes force closure; they force us to make something concrete, often before we are quite ready. Incremental development means that we build these products such that they could be deployed at the end of one or more of the iterations.

Q 101. Which of the following statements are NOT TRUE regarding Agility?

1. Agility is the ability to balance flexibility and stability
2. Agility is the ability to both create and respond to change in order to profit in a turbulent business environment
3. Agility is avoiding planning and lack of structure
4. Agility is ability to deliver customer value while dealing with inherent project unpredictability and dynamism

Answer: C. Agility is avoiding planning and lack of structure 

Agility is the ability to both create and respond to change in order to profit in a turbulent business environment. It is the ability to balance flexibility and stability.

Q 102. There are different types of Retrospectives. These are Release Retrospectives, Project Retrospectives, Iteration Retrospectives and Surprise Retrospectives. What are Surprise Retrospectives?

1. Is conducted when an unexpected event changes your situation
2. Is conducted at the end of each Iteration
3. Is conducted half way of each project
4. Is suggested by the Scrum Master

Answer: A. Is conducted when an unexpected event changes your situation

Surprise Retrospective is conducted when an unexpected event changes your situation. It gives you a chance to reflect more deeply on your experiences and condense key lessons to share with the rest of the organization.

Q 103. If your release is 12 iterations away, your velocity is 14 points, your risk exposure is one iteration and with a 10% chance, how many points will you have finished?

1. 154
2. 110
3. 86
4. 92

Answer: A. 154.

Using the following formula, risk_adjusted_points_remaining = (iterations_remaining – risk_exposure) * velocity / risk_multiplier –> points remaining = (12 – 1) * 14 = 154 points 10 percent chance: 154 / 1 = 154 points.

Q 104: Which of the following reports visually shows the remaining estimated workload over the course of the project?

1. Product Backlog Burndown Report
2. Gantt Chart
3. Product Backlog
4. Sprint Chart

Answer: A. Product Backlog Burndown Report

The Product Backlog Burndown report graphs remaining estimated workload over the course of the project. Workload at the start of each Sprint is measured by summing all open Product Backlog work estimates.

Q 105. Every team needs to constantly evaluate and make appropriate adaptations in the following four areas:

1. Product value, Product quality, Team performance, Project status
2. Product value, Product quality, Team performance, Organization status
3. Product quality, Team performance, Project status, Project deliverables
4. Product value, Product Features, Team performance, Project status

Answer: A. Product value, Product quality, Team performance, Project status

Every team needs to constantly evaluate and make appropriate adaptations in the following four areas: Product value, Product quality, Team performance, Project status

Q 106. Which of the following is NOT true about Kanban ?

1. A Kanban System visualises some unit of value, such as User Story, Minimal Marketable Feature or Plain Old Requirement
2. A Kanban System manages the flow of these units of value, through the use of Work In Process limits.
3. Kanban is same as a Task Board
4. It is a key tool in Lean Manufacturing

Answer: C. Kanban is same as a Task Board 

A Kanban System visualises some unit of value. This unit of value could be a User Story, Minimal Marketable Feature, Plain Old Requirement or something else. This is different from a task-board, which generally focuses on visualising the current tasks.

Q 107. The primary task in release planning is assigning stories to iterations, chiefly on the basis of _______________________.

1. Value and Risk
2. Risk and Priority
3. Customer Requirements
4. Team ability and Value

Answer: A. Value and Risk

The primary task in release planning is assigning stories to iterations, chiefly on the basis of value and risk.

Q 108. What is the relative contribution of feature X to the project if it has a value of 12 and the total value of all features is 35?

1. 0.38
2. 0.34
3. 2.91
4. 14.91

Answer: B. 0.34.

To calculate the relative contribution of each feature, divide its value by the sum of the Total Value of all features. Hence, relative contribution of feature X = 12/35 = 0.34.

Q 109. What is the process of defining and prioritizing the nonfunctional requirements for scaling known as?

1. Decomposition
2. Staging
3. Stanking
4. Prioritizing

Answer: B. 

The process of defining and prioritizing the nonfunctional requirements for scaling is called staging. Staging occurs prior to the start of the first Sprint and takes just one day. During this day, the nonfunctional scaling requirements for this particular project are determined and placed in the Product Backlog.

Q 110. You have been assigned a New Project that is large, complex and uncertain. As a Project Manager, you will be using agile project management. Which of the following will you select while creating your team?

1. Team is expandable with the project
2. Large Team
3. Functional Manager is responsible for the team
4. None of the above

Answer: D. None of the above 

As per Agile methodology, it is best to work with small teams staffed by talented and experienced people and increase the number only when required.

Q 111. The Levels of Listening by Whitworth states 3 Levels of listening. What does the third level, viz. Global listening refer to?

1. A hardwired connection is established between the coach and the speaker
2. The coach uses everything in the environment. Viz. speaker’s tone of voice, posture, etc when listening at this level
3. The coach hears the speaker’s words attentively
4. The coach only hears the global sounds and not the speaker’s words

Answer: B. The coach uses everything in the environment. Viz. speaker’s tone of voice, posture, etc when listening at this level 

The coach uses everything in the environment when listening at Level III. The speaker’s tone of voice, posture, changes in room temperature, what noises are happening around them—all of these things are noticed and used by the coach.

Q 112. Who should participate in Iteration Planning?

1. Customer, Iteration Manager, Developers, Testers
2. Product Manager, Iteration Manager, Developers, Testers
3. Entire Project Team
4. Product Specialists, Customer, Iteration Manager, Developers, Testers

Answer: C. Entire Project Team 

The entire project team—product manager, product specialists, customers, developers, testers, iteration manager, project leader—should participate in the iteration planning session as it provides everyone with the context for work to be accomplished during the iteration. Functional manager participation can help the team better understand strategic priority issues and demonstrates commitment to and support of the project.

Q 113. A long term plan of action designed to achieve a particular goal is referred to as:

1. Tactical Planning
2. Strategic Planning
3. Goal Planning
4. Roadmap Planning

Answer B. Strategic Planning

Strategy is a long-term plan of action designed to achieve a particular goal. A tactic is a method employed to achieve a certain goal. The goal pursued by strategic planning is at a higher level of abstraction than the goals pursued by tactics.

Q 114. Which of the following is NOT a Closed Story?

1. A recruiter can review resumes from applicants to one of her ads.
2. A recruiter can delete an application that is not a good match for a job.
3. A recruiter can manage the ads she has placed
4. A recruiter can change the expiration date of an ad

Answer: C. A recruiter can manage the ads she has placed 

“A recruiter can manage the ads she has placed.” This is not a closed story: Managing the ads she’s placed is not something that is ever completely done. Instead, it is an ongoing activity.

Q 115. A technique defined by Dean Leffingwell and Don Widrig for use cases is also used for Prioritization. This is a voting scheme where each stakeholder is given 100 points that he or she can use for voting in favour of the most important requirements. How they distribute the 100 points is up to them: 20 here, 10 there or even all 100 on a single requirement if that is their sole priority. This method is known as:

1. Monopoly Money
2. 100-Point method
3. Requirements Prioritization Money
4. Agile Prioritization

Answer: B. 100-Point method. 

The 100-Point Method was originally developed by Dean Leffingwell and Don Widrig for use cases and is used for prioritization as well. It is a voting scheme where each stakeholder is given 100 points that he or she can use for voting in favour of the most important requirements. How they distribute the 100 points is up to them: 20 here, 10 there or even all 100 on a single requirement if that is their sole priority.

Your Answer :  No option selected.

Q 116. When should be the BEST time for the team to estimate a task?

1. Throughout the Iteration
2. During Iteration Planning
3. Task estimates are decided by the Scrum Master
4. At the time of Iteration Planning as well as during the iteration

Answer: D. At the time of Iteration Planning as well as during the iteration

Project Team will estimate a task at the time of Iteration Planning as well as during the iteration planning.

Q 117. Which of the following correctly defines the role of the Scrum Master?

1. Achieves initial and ongoing funding for the project by creating the project’s initial overall requirements
2. Is responsible for the Scrum process, for teaching Scrum to everyone involved in the project
3. Is responsible for developing the functionality
4. Is responsible for the Product Backlog

Answer: B. Is responsible for the Scrum process, for teaching Scrum to everyone involved in the project

The ScrumMaster is responsible for the Scrum process, for teaching Scrum to everyone involved in the project, for implementing Scrum so that it fits within an organization’s culture and still delivers the expected benefits, and for ensuring that everyone follows Scrum rules and practices.

Q 118. In XP, the code goes through four levels of completion. Which of the following states the right sequence?

1. Broken, Build, Ready for demo, Ready to release
2. Build, Ready for demo, Broken, Ready to release
3. Build, Ready for demo, Ready to release, Broken
4. Broken, Build, Ready to release, Ready for demo

Answer: A. Broken, Build, Ready for demo, Ready to release

Your code goes through four levels of completion: 1. Broken. This only happens in your sandbox. 2. Builds and passes all tests. All versions in your repository are at least at this level. 3. Ready to demo to stakeholders. Any version marked with the “Iteration X” tag is ready for stakeholders to try. 4. Ready to release to real users and customers. Any version marked with the “Release Y” tag is production ready.

Q 119. An informative workspace broadcasts information into the room. Of the following, which does NOT constitute an Informative workspace?

1. Big Visible Charts
2. Process Improvement Charts
3. Hand Drawn Charts
4. SRS Document

Answer: D. SRS Document.

An informative workspace broadcasts information into the room. Examples are Big Visible Charts, Process Improvement Charts, Hand Drawn Charts and others

Q 120. Forecasting the Financial value of a theme is the responsibility of:

1. Analysts
2. Product Owner
3. Project Manager
4. All Team Members

Answer: D. All Team Members. 

Forecasting the financial value of a theme is the responsibility of the product owner but it is a responsibility shared with all other team members—programmers, testers, analysts, project managers, and so on.